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MysticMissMisty
Guest
Sure, this is a rather hypothetical question, but, as a person with interest in the classics, I was just curious as to whether the Church would have considered/considers the pagan (natural) marriages conducted under typical circumstances to have been valid ones?
I ask this since, among other things, divorce was so common/accepted and prostitution and even concubinage were considered not so morally reprehensible as in many of today’s societies. Indeeed, at least visiting prostitutes (adultery) was considered rather par for the course within Roman marriages.
Perhaps a related question would be: Were Old Testament marriages such as those involving multiple wives and concubines considered (naturally) valid?
I ask this since, among other things, divorce was so common/accepted and prostitution and even concubinage were considered not so morally reprehensible as in many of today’s societies. Indeeed, at least visiting prostitutes (adultery) was considered rather par for the course within Roman marriages.
Perhaps a related question would be: Were Old Testament marriages such as those involving multiple wives and concubines considered (naturally) valid?