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A Protestant is asking me why were all of the 1st Century Bishops married when later all the Catholic Bishops were not married. I think about the year 600, a Council made celebacy mandantory.
In 1st Timothy3:1-2, requirements were given by Paul for Bishops. It says to “to have only one wife”. So the Protestant is saying Bishops should be married. I say it was Jesus who instituted the colleege of Bishops - NOT Paul. How do I answer this question?
In 1st Timothy3:1-2, requirements were given by Paul for Bishops. It says to “to have only one wife”. So the Protestant is saying Bishops should be married. I say it was Jesus who instituted the colleege of Bishops - NOT Paul. How do I answer this question?