What counts as sufficient knowledge for mortal sin?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Is_it_okay_to
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
I

Is_it_okay_to

Guest
Fr. Serpa,
We have all learned that sufficient knowledge that something is sinful is one of the conditions for committing the sin. But the “modern” question often seems to be whether a person agrees with what he knows the Church teaches about the nature of the sin. For example, many know that the Church teaches that contraception or masturbation are seriously and intrinsically sinful, but they simply disagree with this for what they consider very good reasons, for which they can perhaps cite a dozen theologians. What is required here for sufficient knowledge here?
 
Hi,

The problem here isn’t a question as to whether a person has sufficient knowledge of the moral gravity of a particular act, but rather the refusal to accept the Church’s teaching that such an act is indeed mortally sinful.

While theologians perform a valuable service to the Church in that they can help to explain what we believe, they do not DETERMINE what we believe—nor do we! Jesus gave that authority to the Church. There is nothing modern about the temptation to put one’s opinion above the teachings of the Church. Sinners have been doing that for centuries. What IS required is that we recognize the authority Jesus gave to His Church and that we humbly submit to Her teachings whether we fully understand them, agree with them, like them—or not!

Fr. Vincent Serpa, O.P.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top