What did Jesus really mean by this saying?

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FrankR

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Taking in context the paragraphs that preceed it, what does Jesus mean when he says “Whoever can accept this ought to accept it” In Matthew 19:12

Is this a sign perhaps of “wiggle” room in the debate of divorce and remarriage within the church for those who believe they may not have been invovled in a godly marriage the first time around?

At one time God allowed divorce and remarriage, which is evidence of his tolerance for the weakness of mankind. Did his tolerance end? When I read this, “Whoever can accept this ought to accept it” it sounds like a tolerant admonition on the part of Jesus, that some would not be able to do it the most ideal way.

Thoughts?
 
Sorry, no wiggle room on this one. It isn’t at all what Jesus was alluding to. Here is the preceding passage:
9
I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) and marries another commits adultery."
10
[His] disciples said to him, “If that is the case of a man with his wife, it is better not to marry.”
11
He answered, “Not all can accept [this] word, but only those to whom that is granted.
12
Some are incapable of marriage because they were born so; some, because they were made so by others; some, because they have renounced marriage for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. Whoever can accept this ought to accept it.”
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Jesus was emphasizing the fact that the demands of marriage are high, and that one should not go lightly into it because of it’s permanent state. He then goes on to compare it to consecrated virginity/celibacy which places similarly strict demands. The Navarre Bible Commentary says the following:
  1. “Not all men can receive this precept”: our Lord is fully aware
    that the demands involved in His teaching on marriage and His
    recommendation of celibacy practised out of love of God run counter to human selfishness. That is why He says that acceptance of this teaching is a gift from God.
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Check Matthew out to understand why God originally permitted divorce in the OT:

And Pharisees came up to him and tested him by asking, “Is it lawful to divorce one’s wife for any cause?” 4 He answered, “Have you not read that he who made them from the beginning made them male and female, 5 and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? 6 So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder.” 7 They said to him, “Why then did Moses command one to give a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?” 8 He said to them, “For your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. 9 And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for unchastity, and marries another, commits adultery; and he who marries a divorced woman, commits adultery.” (Mt 19:3).
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Fidelis:
Jesus was emphasizing the fact that the demands of marriage are high, and that one should not go lightly into it because of it’s permanent state. He then goes on to compare it to consecrated virginity/celibacy which places similarly strict demands.
Click to expand...
Jesus replied, “Not everyone can accept this word, but only those to whom it has been given. For some are eunuchs because they were born that way; others were made that way by men; and others have renounced marriage because of the kingdom of heaven. The one who can accept this should accept it.” Matt 19:11-12 (NIV)

I always took this to mean an “if your eye causes you to sin gouge it out” type of thing with the talk about making eunuchs. That is to say… celibacy is the fall-back plan for those who think they will not be able to get married and stay married.
 
I have heard it suggested, and the thought makes some sense to me, that in this particular quote when Jesus says “Not all can accept this teaching”, the teaching he was talking about was the apostles idea that"it is better for a man not to get married" His statment was not directed to the teaching about divorce.

It does put the whole discussion into a little different light.

But it doesn’t change Jesus’s teaching on divorce as stated elsewhere.

Jim
 
I have been reading the post in response to this thread and I agree with those who hold Jesus was speaking about marriage not divorce.

However, I would like to expand the “box” a little. Through out Matthew’s Gospel we constantly find Jesus teaching those around him (and us) what he expects of his disciples and I think here we find another example. From what I have read that Jesus’ constant demand for us is to be pure and simple in all things we do. This is way in another passage he speaks of us not taking oaths or swearing to God. For Jesus, this is unnecessary because his as he sees it his followers lives should be lived opened and an in total accordance to the Will of God. If this is God’s will, then it should be second nature for us to follow it with out question.

But Jesus, in his wisdom, realized that this will not be the case with every person so he ends up saying that not everyone will be capable to live such a life of total dedication without compromise.
 
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