C
CivisRomanusSum
Guest
For this thread I’m referring specifically to 1 Corinthians 11:14-37.
As I understand it, and as is the Catholic interpretation, there was some kind of liturgical abuse in the Corinthians’ celebration of the Lord’s Supper. St. Paul admonished them for this, saying things like them being drunk, or that they should just eat at home, or embarrassing the poor. Apparently, it was so serious that whatever they were doing was not really the Lord’s Supper.
Now here’s my problem. St. Paul then moves to the Eucharist. Catholics always cite 1 Corinthians 11:27-30 in reference to receiving the Eucharist unworthily. I have no problem believing in the Real Presence. However, what struck me is the protestant interpretation. I’ve read their literature, and they say that the liturgical abuse was nothing more than an agape, or potluck, to commemorate the Lord’s Supper. What they were doing wrong was that the rich ones brought much food while the poor brought almost none, so that the rich ate only their food while leaving the poor to starve (v. 21). The rich-poor thing might have been only one of the divisions in this early Christian get-together thing. The Catholic sources I’ve read state that the agape was sometimes held before the Eucharistic Celebration. If so, how am I now to understand “eating and drinking unworthily?” The protestants say that because of the divisions, we are doing damage against the body of Christ by not having solidarity with members of his body, and that being so divided while receiving communion was against the spirit of the Lord’s Supper. Because of this, they disregard the early Christian belief in the Real Presence entirely, simply stating that there should not be divisions while commemorating the Lord’s Supper.
So what exactly did the Corinthians do wrong? What’s the Catholic interpretation of this? I find that our concept of receiving the Eucharist unworthily (because of mortal sin) strays from the context of the entire passage (being in communion with members of Christ’s body). Correct me please!
As I understand it, and as is the Catholic interpretation, there was some kind of liturgical abuse in the Corinthians’ celebration of the Lord’s Supper. St. Paul admonished them for this, saying things like them being drunk, or that they should just eat at home, or embarrassing the poor. Apparently, it was so serious that whatever they were doing was not really the Lord’s Supper.
Now here’s my problem. St. Paul then moves to the Eucharist. Catholics always cite 1 Corinthians 11:27-30 in reference to receiving the Eucharist unworthily. I have no problem believing in the Real Presence. However, what struck me is the protestant interpretation. I’ve read their literature, and they say that the liturgical abuse was nothing more than an agape, or potluck, to commemorate the Lord’s Supper. What they were doing wrong was that the rich ones brought much food while the poor brought almost none, so that the rich ate only their food while leaving the poor to starve (v. 21). The rich-poor thing might have been only one of the divisions in this early Christian get-together thing. The Catholic sources I’ve read state that the agape was sometimes held before the Eucharistic Celebration. If so, how am I now to understand “eating and drinking unworthily?” The protestants say that because of the divisions, we are doing damage against the body of Christ by not having solidarity with members of his body, and that being so divided while receiving communion was against the spirit of the Lord’s Supper. Because of this, they disregard the early Christian belief in the Real Presence entirely, simply stating that there should not be divisions while commemorating the Lord’s Supper.
So what exactly did the Corinthians do wrong? What’s the Catholic interpretation of this? I find that our concept of receiving the Eucharist unworthily (because of mortal sin) strays from the context of the entire passage (being in communion with members of Christ’s body). Correct me please!