T
thinkandmull
Guest
Careful now, I haven’t done advanced math in quite awhile, so if you could walk me through this I’d be thankful. I have for a long time believed Zeno’s paradox to be unsolvable. How can something be both infinite (infinite points) and finite (beginning and end). Some say that calculus shows how something infinite can have a finite solution. I can’t remember how the equations go, but to my mind these days its sounds to me that calculus is bunk too, if that is what it says. Finite and infinite are opposed. Does calculus attempt to rigorously prove that the infinite can be finite, and if so, why is this not simply a new paradox?