S
Steve_Andersen
Guest
I may have fallen into a semantic trap
I was on a skeptics forum where they take great pleasure in pointing out logical inconsistencies or physical impossibilities/improbabilities in the text of the Bible and using that as a springboard to “well it’s wrong here so how can you say that it is without error?”
I tried to explain that when we say that it is “true” that doesn’t mean that is is a literal word for word account and that it uses a variety of literary conventions to convey its message.
But they still press on with the question
What it a good come back to the question of what does inerrant mean?
Also, they make a lot of hay about portions of the OT concerning dietary laws etc that are no longer in effect
The basic question is; if those texts were superseded than why are they still part of the Bible?
Any snappy comeback lines?
![Confused :confused: :confused:](https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/joypixels/assets/8.0/png/unicode/64/1f615.png)
I was on a skeptics forum where they take great pleasure in pointing out logical inconsistencies or physical impossibilities/improbabilities in the text of the Bible and using that as a springboard to “well it’s wrong here so how can you say that it is without error?”
I tried to explain that when we say that it is “true” that doesn’t mean that is is a literal word for word account and that it uses a variety of literary conventions to convey its message.
But they still press on with the question
What it a good come back to the question of what does inerrant mean?
Also, they make a lot of hay about portions of the OT concerning dietary laws etc that are no longer in effect
The basic question is; if those texts were superseded than why are they still part of the Bible?
Any snappy comeback lines?
![Confused :confused: :confused:](https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/joypixels/assets/8.0/png/unicode/64/1f615.png)