P
Pellman
Guest
When we encounter “Jew” in the New Testament it seems to me that it can mean possibly three things. The Greek word is Ioudaios, literally Judean, which could be:
With this in mind, we can see that the Gospels are not necessarily hostile to people we think of as Jews. When for instance, John writes,
“After this Jesus went about in Galilee; he would not go about in Judea, because the Jews sought to kill him”
it would make more sense to translate it as
“After this Jesus went about in Galilee; he would not go about in Judea, because the **Judeans **sought to kill him”
However, even though this seems just amazingly obvious once one sees it, I must admit that it came out of my own head. I have never heard or read it anywhere. And that makes me suspicious of my conclusion
So am I wrong here?
- An inhabitant of Judea. This usage would explain why the authors often write “the Jews” in contrast to Jesus and his followers, since they were from Galilee. In this since the first Christians, and Jesus Himself, were not “jews”.
- A person of the tribe of Judah. Thus Jesus, who was of the tribe of Judah (house of David), was described in Samaria by the woman at the well as a *Ioudaios, *a “Jew”.
With this in mind, we can see that the Gospels are not necessarily hostile to people we think of as Jews. When for instance, John writes,
“After this Jesus went about in Galilee; he would not go about in Judea, because the Jews sought to kill him”
it would make more sense to translate it as
“After this Jesus went about in Galilee; he would not go about in Judea, because the **Judeans **sought to kill him”
However, even though this seems just amazingly obvious once one sees it, I must admit that it came out of my own head. I have never heard or read it anywhere. And that makes me suspicious of my conclusion
So am I wrong here?