C
CivisRomanusSum
Guest
Hello!
When asked why God “kills” people in the Bible or otherwise takes people’s lives, apologists often answer that since God is the Lord of life, it is His prerogative to take it away. God can never be unjust in the taking of life because none of us are “innocent” before Him. Thus, it would seem, the prohibition on the taking of life applies only to us and not to Him. Hence, God is perfectly justified, though in ways often unknown to us, when He allows innocent life to be taken, or when He wipes out entire populations in the Bible.
However, I’ve been thinking, would this same line of thought be applicable to God Incarnate? Jesus Christ is true God and true man. Was Jesus, being man, bound by the Mosaic law? Or was Jesus, being God, free to repeal, modify, or break it as He pleases?
Take again, for example, the prohibition on killing. In the Old Testament, God sends plagues to kill people. What if Jesus were to take a dagger and drive it through someone’s heart? Is He perfectly justified, being God? Or did He break the Father’s law?
Or what about the prohibition on theft. Technically, we own nothing and everything belongs to God. So if Jesus were to take someone else’s money without their permission, is it correct that this does not qualify as “stealing” because Jesus, being God, truly owns the money?
I’m trying to understand the relationship between God and the moral law. Is something good because God says it is? If so, it seems that God is, by definition, is precluded from breaking the moral law. But the idea of Jesus stabbing someone to death or stealing someone else’s money seems too absurd for me to think that Jesus, by definition, cannot sin. Is Jesus exempt when He does these things simply because He’s God? (Of course Jesus is sinless, but this is all hypothetical).
When asked why God “kills” people in the Bible or otherwise takes people’s lives, apologists often answer that since God is the Lord of life, it is His prerogative to take it away. God can never be unjust in the taking of life because none of us are “innocent” before Him. Thus, it would seem, the prohibition on the taking of life applies only to us and not to Him. Hence, God is perfectly justified, though in ways often unknown to us, when He allows innocent life to be taken, or when He wipes out entire populations in the Bible.
However, I’ve been thinking, would this same line of thought be applicable to God Incarnate? Jesus Christ is true God and true man. Was Jesus, being man, bound by the Mosaic law? Or was Jesus, being God, free to repeal, modify, or break it as He pleases?
Take again, for example, the prohibition on killing. In the Old Testament, God sends plagues to kill people. What if Jesus were to take a dagger and drive it through someone’s heart? Is He perfectly justified, being God? Or did He break the Father’s law?
Or what about the prohibition on theft. Technically, we own nothing and everything belongs to God. So if Jesus were to take someone else’s money without their permission, is it correct that this does not qualify as “stealing” because Jesus, being God, truly owns the money?
I’m trying to understand the relationship between God and the moral law. Is something good because God says it is? If so, it seems that God is, by definition, is precluded from breaking the moral law. But the idea of Jesus stabbing someone to death or stealing someone else’s money seems too absurd for me to think that Jesus, by definition, cannot sin. Is Jesus exempt when He does these things simply because He’s God? (Of course Jesus is sinless, but this is all hypothetical).