What is the difference between Catholicism and Orthodoxy?

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Do you believe that Jesus and God are one?

Since you asked, Yes I do believe that Jesus, God and the Holy Spirit are all One.

Do I completely understand how God can be all three? Nope not really, but I just rely on my Faith.

I also don’t understand how God made the Earth, out of Nothing. (and just look at our earth.) I also don’t understand how God made Man out of dust, (and just look at the detail of our human bodies.) I can’t even begin to completely understand.

I also don’t understand the “Air” that we breath. (yes I know the science) but I don’t understand how God made it all out of nothing.

I don’t understand how come our earth is Round and no one falls off, or how come the people living on the bottom, why doesn’t the blood all rush to their head. (yes i know about gravity) but how did God come up with all of this? Do I comprehend all of this? Heavens no, but I don’t have to. That’s why it’s called Faith.

Of course not, but do I believe it? Yep. Which brings me back to the Trinity.

If God can do all these other things, why should I doubt for even a moment, that He can be God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Ghost.
 
Deconi said:
Nice handful of straws, John, and your strawman takes shape…

To extend your assertion is to lessen The Holy Spirit, or to suggest The Son is ALSO a God besides The Father! Danger looms.

The Father is God; The Son is God. The Holy Spirit is also God, fully manifest. But we know there are not three Gods, but, ONE!
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Actually what you stated is Modalism, a heresy condemned formally at the Council of Constantinople. It is most certainly not a strawman as you have just illustrated the dangers of the filioque, basing this heretical understanding on it.
 
crazzeto said:
How do the Greek Orthodox then, explain Jesus sending the Spirit? If the Greek understanding is that the spirit is sent merely “through” Christ, i.e. Christ is more of a passive conduit, rather than being Active how could Christ Claim:

**This is simple, and confirmed by Christ’s words - he is sending the Holy Spirit at a temporal point in time - but the Holy Spirit proceeds eternally from the Father!

This was the pre-schism teaching of the whole unified Church by consensus and by declaration. Are you saying that the whole Christian Church on Earth was devoid of inspiration of the Holy Spirit in this teaching for the first 1000 years of it’s existence on Earth? Are you saying that this was only corrected by Rome in 1014 when they departed from the consensus?**

Christ is making this sound very pro-active on his part. Why would God choose to create this kind of confusion if the Spirit only comes through the son… Would Christ not have worded this

“And through me, the promise of the Father will be sent upon you”… or some such?

And stated again in John 15:

JN 16:

And then he does it (For the first time)

**Well, we EO have refrained from blaming Christ for “imperfectly” revealing the Truth - or suggesting improvements to His Divine revelation about the nature of the Trinity.

Actually, the Roman innovation to the Creed by adding the filioque, amounts to exactly what you have done here… attempted to change Divine Revelation about the Trinitarian nature of God - by what you see as an “improvement”. It’s not, it’s heresy.

Clearly, Christ “proactively” sent temporally, and at a point in time the Holy Spirit. He acknowledges clearly it eternally proceeds from the Father “on high”!**

Paul in his Epistles goes so far as to call the Holy Spirit “the spirit of Christ” several times, including in Philipians.
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The Apostle Paul is clearly referencing the Holy Spirit as the Person of the Trinity which Christ “sent” temporally. He is not using the term “the spirit of Christ” to claim it eternally proceeded from Christ. If he was - he would have used a proper noun to name the “Spirit” in this passage, as The Holy “Spirit”. He did not do this.
 
Perhaps this is clear when you start with a theology, and you’re trying to support it.
 
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