When did monogamy become the "norm" for marriage?

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Luke2220

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Having discussions about what is “normal” marriage with a skilled debater @ work.

My question is about the historical timeline of the Church’s view of marriage being one man + one woman, for life, until death. ( AMEN!!). Right on! No further convincing needed for me.👍

However,… polygamy is referenced in the Old Testament; ref King David.
  1. Is there a reference to polygamy as an accepted practice in the New Testament?
  2. When did monogamy become the norm for marriage?
Or, would it be more accurate to say that monogamy was ALWAYS the norm ( as our Lord defines it in Matt.19.4).
And polygamy was an “accepted” practice, by those that had sufficient resources ($$ and power), to engage in such a marriage (such as King Solomon).
 
Having discussions about what is “normal” marriage with a skilled debater @ work.

My question is about the historical timeline of the Church’s view of marriage being one man + one woman, for life, until death. ( AMEN!!). Right on! No further convincing needed for me.👍

However,… polygamy is referenced in the Old Testament; ref King David.
  1. Is there a reference to polygamy as an accepted practice in the New Testament?
  2. When did monogamy become the norm for marriage?
Or, would it be more accurate to say that monogamy was ALWAYS the norm ( as our Lord defines it in Matt.19.4).
And polygamy was an “accepted” practice, by those that had sufficient resources ($$ and power), to engage in such a marriage (such as King Solomon).
I read in a Patristic text a while back that polygamy was still being practiced in the early church. This particular father was advocating abstaining from marital relations during lent.

I found it quite shocking that it was being practiced this late.
 
An extremely knowledgeable Padre told me that polygamy, although practiced in the OT, was never encouraged by God. Furthermore, every time it appeared, it led to generational trouble (the conflicts of Isaac/Ishmael; the battles between David’s sons; the division of the kingdom after Solomon’s wives led them to nationwide apostasy; etc.)

Based on the Biblical account, the fact that Gn. states that man shall cling to his wife (not wives) and that our LORD never made allowances for polygamy, it would seem that in Scripture, monogamy was always the preferred state, even though in earlier times polygamy was practiced.

ICXC NIKA.
 
An extremely knowledgeable Padre told me that polygamy, although practiced in the OT, was never encouraged by God. Furthermore, every time it appeared, it led to generational trouble (the conflicts of Isaac/Ishmael; the battles between David’s sons; the division of the kingdom after Solomon’s wives led them to nationwide apostasy; etc.)
its true
 
An extremely knowledgeable Padre told me that polygamy, although practiced in the OT, was never encouraged by God. Furthermore, every time it appeared, it led to generational trouble (the conflicts of Isaac/Ishmael; the battles between David’s sons; the division of the kingdom after Solomon’s wives led them to nationwide apostasy; etc.)

Based on the Biblical account, the fact that Gn. states that man shall cling to his wife (not wives) and that our LORD never made allowances for polygamy, it would seem that in Scripture, monogamy was always the preferred state, even though in earlier times polygamy was practiced.

ICXC NIKA.
This.
 
I read in a Patristic text a while back that polygamy was still being practiced in the early church. This particular father was advocating abstaining from marital relations during lent.

I found it quite shocking that it was being practiced this late.
This should not be surprising; it was apparently necessary to stipulate in 1 Timothy 3:2 that bishops should be married to one wife. 1 Timothy was apparently written no earlier than AD 62.

I’m curious whether we can say that polygamous marriages were always and everywhere invalid as contrary to natural law, or if this only became the case at a later time.
 
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