E
Eulogos1
Guest
My husband has had a prostatectomy. Because of this there is almost no ejaculate as the prostate, and the seminal vesicles are gone. Some fluid is produced by a gland (bulbovesicular?) but it is so minimal as to be unnoticeable.
I have read that the definition of potency is the ability to have a sufficient erection to penetrate (which my husband can do with the use of an injected medication) and to ejaculate.
It appears that if I died, by this definition my husband might not be able to marry again. But since we have been married over 48 years, is there anything wrong with our continuing to have intercourse?
I know it does not matter that we are now sterile. I know there is nothing wrong with using medications to remedy a defect in erectile function.
My question is whether we are engaging in a marital act when we have intercourse which does not result in ejaculation, even though it does result in something like an orgasm during intercourse. Does the very minimal amount of ejaculate from the gland suffice?
Please could I have responses only from a priest or a certified apologist? I looked for “Ask an Apologist” but could not find it. This is a delicate question the answer to which is beyond the competency of even most well educated laymen, otherwise I would not need to ask it.
I have read that the definition of potency is the ability to have a sufficient erection to penetrate (which my husband can do with the use of an injected medication) and to ejaculate.
It appears that if I died, by this definition my husband might not be able to marry again. But since we have been married over 48 years, is there anything wrong with our continuing to have intercourse?
I know it does not matter that we are now sterile. I know there is nothing wrong with using medications to remedy a defect in erectile function.
My question is whether we are engaging in a marital act when we have intercourse which does not result in ejaculation, even though it does result in something like an orgasm during intercourse. Does the very minimal amount of ejaculate from the gland suffice?
Please could I have responses only from a priest or a certified apologist? I looked for “Ask an Apologist” but could not find it. This is a delicate question the answer to which is beyond the competency of even most well educated laymen, otherwise I would not need to ask it.
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