A bit off topic, but I think it is worth saying that tobinatorstark’s assertion about King James killing his mother is incorrect. Here is a brief sequence of events. (I am doing this from memory, so I may have a few dates off. If I am wrong, please let me know.)
1567 - Mary forced to abdicate the Throne of Scotland and she flees to France.
1567 - A few days later, King James, only a child if I recall correctly, assumes the throne.
1586 - Mary returns to France and attempts to reclaim the Throne of England. She is captured by her half sister, Queen Elizabeth.
1587 - Mary is tried and found guilty of treason and is executed on the orders of Queen Elizabeth.
1603 Queen Elizabeth dies and King James assumes the thrones of both Scotland (which he already had) and England.
1604 King James orders a new Bible translation based on the canon of scripture approved Luther and other reformers. A decision later to translate as apocrypha 7 books of the Old Testament was made, but these books would be placed in a separate section.
1611 King James authorizes the new version.
1625 - King James I dies of natural causes in his bed.
1638 - The First major revision to the King James Version is released.
Contarini is right.
Now back to the topic of the Origin of the King