L
lordie
Guest
were does it indicate catholic means universal in the bible ?
Last edited:
You’ll find the word καθόλου, though. Take a look at Acts 4:18 (“they commanded them not to speak or teach at all in the name of Jesus”). The ending (“ικός”) just makes a noun-form out of the word (i.e., it becomes an adjective).καθολικός
The first recorded use comes in the second century, from Ignatius of Antioch, in his letter to the Smyrnaeans:true @gorgias , my bro is baptist and he wanted to know I found it under an adjective ,but no were does it indicate about catholics , and as you say trinity is not in the bible neither , neither is the word catholic ,which is strange because ,catholic was the first religion
(Emphasis mine)See that you all follow the bishop, even as Jesus Christ does the Father, and the presbytery as you would the apostles; and reverence the deacons, as being the institution of God. Let no man do anything connected with the Church without the bishop. Let that be deemed a proper Eucharist, which is [administered] either by the bishop, or by one to whom he has entrusted it. Wherever the bishop shall appear, there let the multitude [of the people] also be; even as, wherever Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church.
This is the first record of the term being used as a formal appellation for the Church founded by Christ, but it originates in the book of Acts 9:31The first recorded use comes in the second century, from Ignatius of Antioch, in his letter to the Smyrnaeans:
Right. But it doesn’t occur there as a single word… right? In the context you mention, it’s two words: “through all”. The first recorded instance – as a single term – is from Ignatius.This is the first record of the term being used as a formal appellation for the Church founded by Christ, but it originates in the book of Acts 9:31
Yes, it is used as an adjective in both instances, but in Ignatius, it is used as a proper noun, which is a WHOLE 'nuther level!Right. But it doesn’t occur there as a single word… right? In the context you mention, it’s two words: “through all”. The first recorded instance – as a single term – is from Ignatius.
Ouch. That’s pretty out there. Was your brother baptized with the baptism of John, or the baptism of Jesus? John didn’t baptize “in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit”.my brothers views are if st.john the baptist is baptist that’s were it started
Well, strictly speaking, it’s a prepositional phrase in Acts 9:31 – “throughout all”.Yes, it is used as an adjective in both instances
Adjective. That’s why I quoted it.but in Ignatius, it is used as a proper noun
Agreed!which is a WHOLE 'nuther level!
Hmm… not sure I’d agree with that. We find the same prepositional phrase in Acts 10:37 and Luke 4:14, but we wouldn’t make that claim there, would we?I quoted that verse to show that the term is used in scripture to describe the Church founded by Christ.
my brother was baptize as a baptist , in no name of any saints or Jesus .