Who has the authority?

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Who has the authority to decide if the rubrics of the Mass are to be modified? Is it only The Holy See, or are the local bishops authorized to vary from the rubrics if they see fit? If the local bishops are authorized to vary from the rubrics, what document gives them this authority?

For example, The Preparation And Celebration Of The Easter Feasts was proclaimed by The Congregation for Divine Worship and approved by His Holiness Pope John Paul II on January 16, 1988. Since the Pope promulgated this document - which indicates that it is men whose feet are to be washed on Holy Thursday - is it permissable for a bishop to change it?
 
Who has the authority to decide if the rubrics of the Mass are to be modified? Is it only The Holy See, or are the local bishops authorized to vary from the rubrics if they see fit? If the local bishops are authorized to vary from the rubrics, what document gives them this authority?

For example, The Preparation And Celebration Of The Easter Feasts was proclaimed by The Congregation for Divine Worship and approved by His Holiness Pope John Paul II on January 16, 1988. Since the Pope promulgated this document - which indicates that it is men whose feet are to be washed on Holy Thursday - is it permissable for a bishop to change it?
The only authority to change any of the Ritesm is the Holy See. Excpet in the very specific circumstances where the Law provides other options.
 
The only authority to change any of the Ritesm is the Holy See. Excpet in the very specific circumstances where the Law provides other options.
Does that apply to the Eastern Rite Catholic Churches as well?

Jeremy
 
The US College of Bishops recently met to discuss some changes in the Liturgy.

“I believe…” instead of “We believe…”

I think there were some 98 or so suggestions that must be sent to the Vatican to approve before they are authentic.
 
The only authority to change any of the Rites is the Holy See. Excpet in the very specific circumstances where the Law provides other options.
Where in ‘the Law’ does it say this?

For example, the document for Holy Week - that JPII signed - says men should receive feet washing. Yet the USCCB site says that it has become customary to wash both genders’ feet.

So who has the authority to decide, and if latitude is given for bishops to decide, where is this authorization given for them to exercise this latitude and how does one know to what extent they may change things?
 
Where in ‘the Law’ does it say this?

For example, the document for Holy Week - that JPII signed - says men should receive feet washing. Yet the USCCB site says that it has become customary to wash both genders’ feet.

So who has the authority to decide, and if latitude is given for bishops to decide, where is this authorization given for them to exercise this latitude and how does one know to what extent they may change things?
Only Rome has the authority and if authorization is given it would be from Rome. There should be a document from Rome authorizing it. The USCCB site can say anything it wants, one would hope that there is documents backing it up.
 
The 2002 General Instruction of the Roman Missal added a new chapter, with the title “Adaptations Within the Competence of Bishops and Bishops’ Conferences”.

It can be accessed from romanrite.com/girm.html . For the diocesan bishop has:
“387. The Diocesan Bishop, who is to be regarded as the high priest of his flock, and from whom the life in Christ of the faithful under his care in a certain sense derives and upon whom it depends, 148 must promote, regulate, and be vigilant over the liturgical life in his diocese. It is to him that in this Instruction is entrusted the regulating of the discipline of concelebration (cf. above, nos. 202, 374) and the establishing of norms regarding the function of serving the priest at the altar (cf. above, no. 107), the distribution of Holy Communion under both kinds (cf. above, no. 283), and the construction and ordering of churches (cf. above, no. 291). With him lies responsibility above all for fostering the spirit of the Sacred Liturgy in the priests, deacons, and faithful.”

When Cardinal Arinze wrote of the purifications, in his letter 12 October 2006 he was careful to use the Pope as his authority and convey limitations of his own authority, as Prefect of the Congregation of Divine Worship and the Discipline of the Sacraments:

“I have put the whole matter before the Holy Father in an audience which he granted me on 9 June 2006, and received instructions to reply as follows: …
4. Paragraph 279 of the General Instruction of the Roman Missal directs that the sacred vessels are to be purified by the priest, the deacon or an instituted acolyte. The status of this text as legislation has recently been clarified by the Pontifical Council for Legislative Texts. It does not seem feasible, therefore, for the Congregation to grant the requested indult from this directive in the general law of the Latin Church.”
(The full letter is at jimmyakin.typepad.com/defensor_fidei/2006/10/cdw_on_purifica.html ).

So Cardinal Arinze seems to be saying that once something is in a liturgical book, he can help interpret and clarify, but not contradict the liturgical book. At least that is my understanding for the Roman Rite.
 
Who has the authority to decide if the rubrics of the Mass are to be modified?
More interestingly is that the essentials of the Mass have changed little in over 1900 years. St Justin writing around 100 AD described the essentials of the mass which differ very little to the mass of today. Now that is continuity for you. Same church, SAME mass, SAME faith
 
Who has the authority to decide if the rubrics of the Mass are to be modified? Since the Pope promulgated this document - which indicates that it is men whose feet are to be washed on Holy Thursday - is it permissable for a bishop to change it?
Since that seems to be the biggest focus of your question, I will repeat what has been said on another thread.

Cardinal O’Malley, who is head of the Archdioces of Boston, sent a dubium (question) to Rome concerning whether or not on Holy Thursday, women’s feet could be washed as part of the service.

Rome’s answer in part was somewhat along the lines of Pilate’s answer of Quod scripsi, scripsi; Rome responded that viri (Men, as opposed to hominem, often translated "men but meaning people) meant what it said; the rubric required that it be men whose feet were washed.

They then went further and said that he should do what he perceived to be pastorally necessary.

A note here; this appears to be essentially a private matter, as the letter has not been published; some have indicated they do no believe it ever occured; that, however is the equivalent of calling the Cardinal a liar, and there is nothing in his history to indcate there is any hint that he is not being perfectly honest. The answer was given publicly by his spokesperson and published in a local newspaper, so he had knowledge the statement had been made public, and he did not retract; further, he washed women’s feet that year (2006).

The essence of this exchange is that 1) Rome writes the law (rubric); 2 Rome means what it says (this one was pretty obvious), and 3) there are issues that Rome does enforce (see, e.g. Redemptionis Sacramentum); there are those issues Rome may enforce or not, if pushed far enough stepping by into a specific issue within a specific diocese, as opposed to a universal correction; and 4) there are issues that Rome simply is not going to enforce, such as this specific issue. They may do so later; or they may not and none of us is particularly accurate in predicting the future.

I prefer not to use the word “abuse” as I feel it is overused bordering on the extreme. Rome clearly sees issues that it feels are necessary to correct, some that it may or may not see that way, and some that it simply sees as not something it will wade in on.

Does the bishop have the authority to change things? In an absolute, literal legal sense, in many if not most liturgical rules, no, he does not.

However, from the very real world, practical sense, Rome clearly sees some sort of hierarchy of rules; that is, they see some as much more important than others. Those that they do not see as important as other rules, they are not going to deal with.

The issue for the Cardinal came up in 2005 when he washed only men’s feet; if caused a firestorm of protest. He wrote to Rome, and Rome both knew the rule, and the circumstances, and decided that he could use his pastoral judgement as to whether the enforcement of the rule was worth the results it would engender.

Many people have problems with that. They also have problems with anything that is not an absolute, complete obedience to the smallest detail. Those people are going to have many problems with liturgical aberrations. I do not suggest that such aberrations are of no importance, but it seems obvious from the above that Rome sees them as of lesser importance than other issues.

In short, if this is going to bother you (washing the feet issue), then you are going to be bothered unless you live in a diocese that is either more in compliance in general with almost all liturgical rules or is heading that direction. If you live in one that takes more of the approach that Rome indicated in this issue, then you will either be bothered greatly, or will need to learn to let go and deal with more critical issues. In short, if the tenor of the diocese is not compliant, the bishop is not going to enforce the issue, and Rome isn’t going to do anything either.

One is reminded of the Serenity Prayer.
 
Many people have problems with that. They also have problems with anything that is not an absolute, complete obedience to the smallest detail. Those people are going to have many problems with liturgical aberrations. I do not suggest that such aberrations are of no importance, but it seems obvious from the above that Rome sees them as of lesser importance than other issues.
Amen 🙂
 
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