B
Ben_Shipman
Guest
Why did God “…visitest the sins of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation” [Numbers 14:18]? Why did He doom the nation of Amalek to die, even so long after its crime that none of the original members remained?
Why, for that matter, was all of mankind implicated in the sins of Adam and Eve?
I don’t understand why God sees collectives like Amalek or Man as morally responsible for anything; when God knows the exact sins of individuals, why treat them as anything but individuals?
Why, for that matter, was all of mankind implicated in the sins of Adam and Eve?
I don’t understand why God sees collectives like Amalek or Man as morally responsible for anything; when God knows the exact sins of individuals, why treat them as anything but individuals?