J
josh88
Guest
Hi,
Simple question: Why does Jesus sometimes address Mary, his mother, as “woman”? (one example is John 2:4, I think) I’ve heard some explanations for this, but they were not satisfactory.
On the surface, calling one’s mother “woman” seems disrespectful. But I realize that this is disrespectful in 21st century English…was it like this in 1st century Greek? Is this a case where the sense of the original Greek was lost in translation?
Thanks,
Josh
Simple question: Why does Jesus sometimes address Mary, his mother, as “woman”? (one example is John 2:4, I think) I’ve heard some explanations for this, but they were not satisfactory.
On the surface, calling one’s mother “woman” seems disrespectful. But I realize that this is disrespectful in 21st century English…was it like this in 1st century Greek? Is this a case where the sense of the original Greek was lost in translation?
Thanks,
Josh