Why did Martin Luther remove certain Scriptures?

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panther

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I understand why Martin Luther would have removed the Maccabee books from the canon of Scripture, but why the other passages (for instance, the extra verses from the book of Daniel)?
 
He agreed with the Jews on their OT.

Many throughout church history have been as skeptical about the apocrypha. Jerome, Melito, Origen, Cyril, and Athanasius to name a few.

Did any important father prior to Augustine accept all the apocrypha as canonical?
 
He agreed with the Jews on their OT.
No, he agreed with some of the Jews. Plenty of Jews considered the books of the deuterocanon to be scripture. And he disagreed with the Church (which had also identified the books of the NT).
Many throughout church history have been as skeptical about the apocrypha. Jerome, Melito, Origen, Cyril, and Athanasius to name a few.
Did any important father prior to Augustine accept all the apocrypha as canonical?
The Church never, ever, made an authoritative declaration of the canon that did not include the deuterocanonicals. That is to say, the Church never, ever, used the current Protestant canon. That is a simple historical fact.
 
I understand why Martin Luther would have removed the Maccabee books from the canon of Scripture, but why the other passages (for instance, the extra verses from the book of Daniel)?
Did you know that Martin Luther tried to get the Epistle of St James removed, too? I think it was more than agreeing or disagreeing with the Jews. His sola fide cannot be supported by the original Catholic Bible. The epistle of St James is pretty clear about the necessity for a Christian to do good works. I also read an article in which it was stated that ML didn’t want Revelation in the NT, either.
 
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