A
alissammiller
Guest
If Peter, our first Pope, was present at the Council of Jerusalem, why did James and not Peter preside over the council? Wouldn’t we expect to see the Pope presiding, if he was present (which we know he was)? The Eastern Orthodox use this as illustration that Peter did not hold a place of primacy in the early church. They also claim that Peter’s opinion about the circumcision of the Gentile’s was overruled by the other Bishops, which they claim is further evidence that Peter was first among equals and had no authority over the other Bishops.