Why did translators insert interpolations in the Scriptures?

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Why did they do that? Didnt they believe the scriptures were the word of God? Did they think that had a better theology and knowledge than the original authors, and that could add more “truth” to the texts?

Why don’t we have the fully authentic scriptures anymore? Why were they not protected?
 
Why did they do that? Didnt they believe the scriptures were the word of God? Did they think that had a better theology and knowledge than the original authors, and that could add more “truth” to the texts?

Why don’t we have the fully authentic scriptures anymore? Why were they not protected?
what are you calling and interpolation?

are you sure it’s the translators? Do you know what they are working with as their starting material?
 
Why did they do that? Didnt they believe the scriptures were the word of God? Did they think that had a better theology and knowledge than the original authors, and that could add more “truth” to the texts?

Why don’t we have the fully authentic scriptures anymore? Why were they not protected?
before the modern method of academic notation with footnotes, copyists in effect included notes or references in the text, offset appropriately as can be seen in some manuscripts, but later copyists may have included the “footnote” with the text. The texts were protected by the Holy Spirit whenever the transcriptions and translations were done in submission to Him and to the Church He guides and protects. A recent poster on a similar thread noted, and provided links (which I don’t have at hand) to the effect that comparison of existing manuscripts reveal very little variation over the years. Those variations are inevitably noted in new translations (in proper footnotes or endnotes).
 
Extend the question back a bit. Why copy scripture at all? If Scriptures are *The Big Book of Everything *as many fundamentalists think they are, then why weren’t the originals preserved at all costs? Or least attempted? Why did Christians use originals and copies and then pitch them? And finally, why translate them into other languages? If God wanted them in Greek, who are we to mess with that? Why isn’t evey Christian encouraged to learn Greek instead of going to the vernacular?
 
Remember that the message is not just proclaimed to believers, but to unbelievers. Even Muslims who hold strongly that the orginal language is the only real Koran still make translations for outreach.

Now for the OP are you asking why translators put interpretations in the text? Or are you asking why transcriptionists would insert interpolations?

JJ
 
Remember that the message is not just proclaimed to believers, but to unbelievers. Even Muslims who hold strongly that the orginal language is the only real Koran still make translations for outreach.

Now for the OP are you asking why translators put interpretations in the text? Or are you asking why transcriptionists would insert interpolations?

JJ
I realize that. I am being a little didactic to get to things like remote and proximate rules of faith.
 
what are you calling and interpolation?

are you sure it’s the translators? Do you know what they are working with as their starting material?
For example the Comma Johanneum: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Comma_Johanneum

Someone in another thread reckons that Matthew 28:19 was an interpolation (that person is non-Trinitarian btw). Of course, he may be wrong, but I have read others suggesting it too.

Check post #38 of this thread: forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=217565

And post #70 of this thread: forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?p=3360656#post3360656
 
The original authors of the NT were Luke, and the Apostles. Jesus spoke Aramaic, which the original authors translated into Greek for some of it. There were also original Hebrew manuscripts. St. Jerome, a linguistic genious, fluent in Aramaic, Greek and Hebrew, had access to extant copies of the original manuscripts, some that no longer exist, and translated the scriptures into the Latin Vulgate. The authentic extant copies were made merely decades away from the originals, which were probably written on sheepskin.

The problem is that language is in a constant state of flux. If I were to say 40 years ago, “my computer is toast”, people would think I mean my computer is a breakfast food. Now, everyone knows I mean my computer is no longer functioning. As the catechism puts it,

119 “It is the task of exegetes to work, according to these rules, towards a better understanding and explanation of the meaning of Sacred Scripture in order that their research may help the Church to form a firmer judgement. For, of course, all that has been said about the manner of interpreting Scripture is ultimately subject to the judgement of the Church which exercises the divinely conferred commission and ministry of watching over and interpreting the Word of God.”
 
*The original authors of the NT were Luke, and the Apostles. *

…just curious…in what regard can Mark be considered an Apostle…even if one were to accept the traditional authorial attributions…
 
Why did they do that? Didnt they believe the scriptures were the word of God? Did they think that had a better theology and knowledge than the original authors, and that could add more “truth” to the texts?

Why don’t we have the fully authentic scriptures anymore? Why were they not protected?
First, I do not necessarily believe that the authors knew they were writing “Scripture.” Secondly, we know for instance that Matthew and the Septuagint authors “retranslated” parts of the Hebrew Bible in Isaiah 7:14 and elsewhere.

Third, it is fairly well known that the Johannine comma was an edition. Daniel J. Harrington, S.J. says that in order to do textual criticism research, these are principles to apply:

  1. *]Are there ancient variant readings among manuscripts?
    *]What can be explained away as unconscious or conscious alterations?

    He says the first thing a textual critic must do is describe the nature of the variants, # of witnesses for each, and age/quality of each.

    Of course, if ever there were a serious conflict on the matter, we trust that God would settle it via His holy Church like He did during disputes in Acts 15, for instance. 😃
 
Why did they do that? Didnt they believe the scriptures were the word of God? Did they think that had a better theology and knowledge than the original authors, and that could add more “truth” to the texts?
An example would be helpful. 🙂
 
Anyone who knows two or more languages knows that there really is not such thing as “word for word” translation. The grammar of the Greek does not exactly correspond to the grammar of English. Often translators will place words in brackets to qualifily the meaning of the text in its original language. Others like the Jehovah’s Witnesses will add words in brackets to completely change the meaning of the text. For example, in Col 1, It plainly says Jesus created “all things”, well since the JWs believe that the Son of God is a created being, they added the word “other”, to read Jesus created “all other things”. So, when looking at a translation look for the theological bias of the translators like the watchtower. And, look at their credentials and look at whom is employing that translation. Most Translators are faithful and qualified. Look to see how a word in brackets brings out the meaning of the text.

Compare translations to see if that interpretation makes sense.
 
I don’t think the issue is translators … could be the monks making copies …
There can be many reasons for the differences:
Involuntary, accidental – it’s not easy to copy correctly! One scribe wrote at the end of a manuscript: “Those who don’t know how to write think it’s no work to be a copyist: three fingers may do the writing, but the whole body toils!”
Deciphering what lay before them –
Handwritten manuscripts were not always easy to read – there were problems with penmanship first of all, then often faded ink, blotches, damage from water, holes made by vermin; unclear abbreviations, poor handwriting, etc. Poor handwriting is especially a problem because of how similar some letters are in any language.
A specific problem the copyists faced that we don’t today was the practice of continuous writing, without capitals, spaces, or punctuation, which meant that the same sequence of letters could be read as different words depending on how they were split up.
Remembering what they’d just seen – usually it was safe to remember only 4-5 words at a time with a maximum possibly of 8? After that, one begins to remember the sense rather than the exact words.
To aid in concentration the scribes did just what we do: they would repeat what they were reading to themselves as they copied it down, sometimes out loud. But sometimes the influence of parallel texts was so strong that the mind substituted the much more familiar text for the different one before them and they would end up writing down what they thought they had seen instead of what they actually did.
Transcription – the actual writing down of what had been read – due to the distractions, weariness, etc. they often did not write well or clearly, forgetting to “dot their i’s and cross their t’s,” so to speak, skipping letters or even words, changing spellings, and so on.

Some examples of types of accidental mistakes –
Dittography – one letter/word in the original accidentally written twice in the copy.
Haplography – two letters/words in the original accidentally written only once in the copy. –
Omission or Duplication by Homoioteleuton/Homoioarcton – this is what happens when two words end -teleuton] or begin -arcton] similarly [homoio-], and the eye when returning to the page accidentally picks up at the second word rather than the first, omitting everything in between, or accidentally picks up again back at the first rather than at the second, repeating everything in between.
Errors in Joining/Separating Words – recall that words were written continuously, without breaks between; words were not divided according to syllables at ends of lines but anywhere.
Misunderstanding of Abbreviations or Marginal Notes – the first of these is self-evident; the second refers to the fact that when, through comparing, an omission was discovered in a text, the scribe would put the missing words in the margin; but this was also where the owner would write his comments on the text. The next copyist sometimes thought these notes were actually part of the text and copied them right into the text he was creating.

Homonyms or similar-sounding words –when manuscripts were “mass produced” – sometimes rather than each monk at his own desk copying his own manuscript, monasteries would have one monk read the text and four or five monks copying down what he read. This leads to variants with homonyms or similar sounding words – when we find that, it’s a clue that that manuscript was not being copied by sight but by sound.

All these so far were examples of in-voluntary changes introduced into the text. But other changes were not accidental – they were deliberate “corrections” – the temptation on the scribe was just too great to “correct” the text he saw before him.
Sometimes the errors were mistakes in spelling or grammar or words that had been accidentally omitted – these would be “good” corrections, but they still constitute variants. However, scribes also harmonized texts (**“corrected” the text before them to agree with another passage or the version they were familiar with from the liturgy – e.g., the addition of “For thine is the kingdom, the power…” after the Lord’s prayer in some manuscripts of Matthew’s Gospel.) **
Sometimes we find them “correcting” what they thought were doctrinal “errors” in the text. Someone has said, scribes often thought it was more important to be “correct” than to be “accurate.” Examples:
Lk 23:32 – Jesus led to crucifixion with two other criminals (omitted)
Jn 7:8 – I am not going up to this feast yet (added)
Mk 8:31 – will rise **after three days ** (changed to on the third day)
What is more, often we find scribes “conflating” readings – they saw that two manuscripts had two different wordings; since they didn’t know which was correct, they combined them just to be on the safe side.
 
If you are asking about textual criticism, sometimes an copyist would view one text in the gospels as lacking something recorded in another gospel, and would “add” from the other gospel for the purpose of harmonizing the texts.

A good example would be the ending of Mark. There are three or four endings to the gospel of Mark. Most likely, the end of Mark was lost. Think of a manuscript as being a roll of paper towels with the outside being the end of the book. If a page got torn away or burned, or just rotted, that page could be lost if at that time no other copies existed. A copist facing the end of Mark without it recording the ressurrection, may try to reconstruct an ending based on the other gospels and rest of the NT. Look at the long ending for Mark, you can find parallels in rest of the NT.

((The most reliable early manuscripts and other ancient witnesses do not have Mark 16:9-20.))

Cross references:

Mark 16:1 : Mt 28:1; Lk 24:1-2;
Mark 16:1 : Mk 15:40;
Mark 16:2 : Ac 20:7; 1Co 16:2;
Mark 16:2 : Jn 5:28;
Mark 16:5 : Mt 28:5-8; Lk 24:3-8; Jn 20:1-2;
Mark 16:5 : Jn 5:28;
Mark 16:5 : Lk 7:14;
Mark 16:5 : Lk 12:27;
Mark 16:5 : Rv 3:4;
Mark 16:6 : Mk 14:67;
Mark 16:6 : 1Co 15:4;
Mark 16:7 : Lk 6:14;
Mark 16:7 : Mt 17:22;
Mark 16:8 : Jn 5:28;
Mark 16:8 : Mk 1:44; 4:40;
Mark 16:9 : Jn 20:11-18;
Mark 16:9 : Lk 24:1; Ac 20:7; 1Co 16:2;
Mark 16:9 : Lk 18:33; Ac 2:24;
Mark 16:9 : Mk 15:40;
Mark 16:9 : Mk 3:15; Lk 8:2;
Mark 16:11 : Lk 24:5;, 11;, 23;
Mark 16:12 : Jn 21:1; 2Co 4:11;
Mark 16:12 : Lk 24:13-35;
Mark 16:14 : Lk 24:9;
Mark 16:14 : Lk 24:38;, 41;
Mark 16:15 : Mt 28:16-20;
Mark 16:15 : Mt 13:38; 1Jn 2:2;
Mark 16:15 : Rm 8:22;
Mark 16:16 : Mk 11:24; Jn 3:16; Ac 10:43; Rm 10:9; 1Pt 1:8-10;
Mark 16:16 : Ac 2:38; 22:16;
Mark 16:16 : Mt 12:41; Jn 3:18;, 36; 5:11; 20:23;
Mark 16:18 : Lk 10:19; Ac 28:3-6;
Mark 16:18 : Ac 28:5;
Mark 16:18 : Ac 9:12;, 17; 1Tm 5:22;
Mark 16:19 : Lk 24:3;
Mark 16:19 : Lk 24:51; Ac 1:2;, 11;, 22; 1Tm 3:16;
Mark 16:19 : Lk 22:69; Heb 10:12;
 
another reason a copist may add something to a text is to explain a difficult passage, or supply a piece of information that would be part of the core knowledge of the original readers.

John 5 KJV

1After this there was a feast of the Jews; and Jesus went up to Jerusalem.

2Now there is at Jerusalem by the sheep market a pool, which is called in the Hebrew tongue Bethesda, having five porches.

3In these lay a great multitude of impotent folk, of blind, halt, withered, waiting for the moving of the water.

4For an angel went down at a certain season into the pool, and troubled the water: whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had.

5And a certain man was there, which had an infirmity thirty and eight years.

John 5 NIV

1Some time later, Jesus went up to Jerusalem for a feast of the Jews. 2Now there is in Jerusalem near the Sheep Gate a pool, which in Aramaic is called Bethesda[a] and which is surrounded by five covered colonnades. 3Here a great number of disabled people used to lie—the blind, the lame, the paralyzed. 5One who was there had been an invalid for thirty-eight years. 6When Jesus saw him lying there and learned that he had been in this condition for a long time, he asked him, “Do you want to get well?”

As you can see, the angel stirring the water does not change theology of any importance.

biblebelievers.com/New_Eye_Opener.html

If you study a tract called the New eye opener by KJV onlyist, you will see that the differences they point out are basically those editiorial comments added by copists to qualify, supply missing information, or to harmonize a text.

melodylane.net/eye.html
 
The best collection of ancient manuscripts of the books of the bible resides in the Vatican library. These are in Aramaic, Hebrew, and Greek. Why were copies and translations made? To replace worn and damaged copies, to supply additional copies for use by new congregations, to supply educational materials in the vernacular for use by missionaries, to supply private libraries of kings and princes, to furnish libraries for monasteries and convents. The list of needs goes on and on.
We have today some of the most accurate and reliable translations of scripture because of the availability of the works in the Vatican library. By comparing a number of copies from various periods, we can eliminate glosses, comments, and copyists errors and give a reading which, if not perfectly equivalent to the text as written by the original author, so close to the original that the variations are trivial and unimportant. Scholars work very hard to render an accurate text when copying or translating because of the importance a fully authentic text for us, the faithful. Don’t worry about the quality of modern translations or concern yourself with whether or not error has crept into the work. God can protect these things. Or don’t you really believe that he is all powerful?

Matthew
 
I am unfamiliar with this so I cannot comment. I would like to see this from a more reliable source. So far in my Google searches, I can only find references to this on Wikipedia and anti-Trinity sites.
Someone in another thread reckons that Matthew 28:19 was an interpolation (that person is non-Trinitarian btw). Of course, he may be wrong, but I have read others suggesting it too.

Check post #38 of this thread: forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=217565

And post #70 of this thread: forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?p=3360656#post3360656
As for these things, the same poster on both threads made assertions without providing any material, citations or links to back them up. Unless or until he is able to substantiate such claims, I would not give them any credence.

There is one very important aspect about the Church that one must keep in mind. The Church did not define as doctrine many things that people believe from the beginning. The idea of the trinity was not invented from nothing in the 4th century. The definition came about because there were controversies that needed to be settled. That is often why the early Church councils were called.

Of course, we must also remember that Catholic Doctrine is not based exclusively on what is in Scripture, but what was also passed on via Sacred Tradition. For example, there is no direct Biblical support for the Assumption of the Blessed Virgin Mary. Yet that doctrine is part of the Deposit of Faith and Catholics are bound to accept it.

As a Catholic, I would presume that you would prefer to give credence to Catholic sources and Catholic doctrine, not the stuff opposed to Catholic teachings I see here.
 
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