P
Philthy
Guest
"WatchfulPilgrim:
Why would it not follow??? Lots of things could follow but the accepting of Luke’s gospel as a message for ALL of us is something that is outside of Scripture per se; it is something that the Church - apart from Scripture - made happen.
Blessings!
For that matter, the beginning of Luke says that these things are written that we **might “know **the certainty of those things” which they had been instructed in.
Uhhh, nooo, that’s not what it says. It is written to Theophilus so that HE might “realize the certainty of the teachings” he received. There is no extrapolation to “we” or us being certain of anything. There is no indication that Luke intended his letter to Theophilus to be shared with anyone, let alone become a part of Sacred Scripture.
Hmmm. Is this your “mea culpa” for misrepresenting (ie “that we might know”)what is actually said in the Scripture which you claim to hold in such high regard? The gospel of Luke simply doesnt make the claim that you attributed to it, and as such your point is self-refuting.Yet his letter was shared and considered Scripture.
So why would it not follow that these teachings (in Luke’s gospel) are not written so that WE may know with certainty?
Why would it not follow??? Lots of things could follow but the accepting of Luke’s gospel as a message for ALL of us is something that is outside of Scripture per se; it is something that the Church - apart from Scripture - made happen.
Yes, you would have to suppose that just like everything else you are claiming since none of it is actually stated in Scripture, which only goes to prove the point that a teaching doesn’t have to be in Scripture to be taught and held as true. Thank you for clearly proving the exact opposite of what you claimed to be proving.I suppose the reader can deduce that what follows in Luke’s letter IS the teachings Luke refers to?
Blessings!