Why does the Catholic Church care about sexuality?

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The Church has always cared. The Sexual Revolution of the late 1960s was addressed by Pope Paul VI in Humanae Vitae which was published in 1968. He had formed a group prior to this to examine the issue and they recommended some loosening of Church teaching in this matter. The Pill was only starting to get a big marketing push in 1967.

time.com/time/covers/0,16641,19670407,00.html

However, Humanae Vitae did not go over well with some dissidents inside the Church.

“Within 24 hours, in an event unprecedented in the history of the Church, more than 200 dissenting theologians signed a full-page ad in The New York Times in protest. Not only did they declare their disagreement with encyclical’s teaching; they went one step further, far beyond their authority as theologians, and actually encouraged dissent among the lay faithful.”

Source: www.regumchristi.org

Prior to 1968, American culture was filled with movies, TV shows and beautiful songs about love and romance. I was there. A beautiful woman could be admired but her wholeness as a person was first on our minds. Her looks were surrounded and protected by her being treated with dignity and modesty in word and dress, for both young men and women, which preserved the proper understanding of how male-female relationships should be conducted.

Today, it’s “just sex,” like going to the bathroom. Pope Paul VI predicted an increase in promiscuity if his words were not heeded, and that’s exactly what happened.

Peace,
Ed
 
You must ask to what point pedophilia is an act sinful if feelings of pedophilia are not sin. In the TV, I saw a man who asked the judge to be killed. He had so many pedophilia feelings that he knew he would repeat the crimes he did so he rejected appeals. And he was executed. It was dramatic and one asks why this happens, why cant this be cured?

Pedophilia and homosexuality are not the same thing. pedophiles are attracted to children. homosexuals are attracted to the same sex.

As for homosexuality, it is the same thing. God has a plan for sex: reproduction, to beat death. If no one reproduces, if everybody becomes gay, death wins and the human gender finishes.

homosexuals cannot reproduce homosexuals unless they mate with a heterosexual. so your theory is false. however, everyone could become gay if homosexuals keep marrying straight people. so this is one reason why homosexual marriage should be permitted. if anything there will be more and more homosexual births as long as homosexuals are encouraged to mate with heterosexuals rather than homosexuals
 
Obviously, we must assume the “Body as a temple” based on the passages in the Bible, but what is the thought process behind how the Church defines proper sexual behavior?

sexuality in the church is based upon chastity. married people and single people and priests and religious are all expected to live chastity. that means all of humanity. adultery, premarital sex and fornication are all against the teaching of chastity but it still happens. that is why sodomy is lumped in there too. its unmarried sex basically. priests and religious are expected to live celibately as are single, unmarried heterosexuals and single, unmarried homosexuals.

Regarding homosexuality, the Church teaches that homosexual inclination is not wrong, but acting on homosexual desires (sodomy) is. But why? Where does this come from? Did the Pope say this ex cathedra?

because it is wrong to have sex out side of marriage. everyone is called to live a chaste life. people who are not married are having sex outside of marriage. thus, they are sinning and living unchaste lives. if gay marriage were permitted, there would be no sin because they would be living chaste lives in gay marriage. the only ones left in the sinning category would then be the heterosexuals having sex outside of marriage, from a chastity point of view.

If a gay man is attracted to another gay man, the attraction in and of itself is not sinful according to the Church. But at what point does it become sinful? When a gay man holds hands with another gay man? If a gay man kisses another gay man on the cheek–the mouth? If a gay man has intercourse with another gay man?

it is sinful or unchaste when the gay man has sex outside of marriage. notice, how christians think its ok for homosexuals to marry heterosexuals and thus commit no sexual sin or acts against chastity. but the marriage would in fact be null and invalid because a homosexual is by nature not attracted to a member of the opposite sex. even though they are technically living in chastity in this homosexual-hetersexual marital arrangement, which is not celibacy.

Assuming it’s not sinful for a gay man to hold or touch another man’s hand, why is it sinful for a gay man to have sex with another gay man? Why is so special about the penis, as opposed to fingers or toes or elbows, that it is the forbearer of sin? 🤷

it is considered sinful because they are not married and gay marriage has not been permitted. it has nothing to do with their sex organs. it has to do with the teaching of the church on chastity for EVERYONE. gay and straight, no matter what your state in life is.
this explanation should help you to understand the resolution to the conflict and reach some reconciliation on gay marriage and have peace of mind.
 
i used the catechism as the basis for my explanations but that won’t work on protestants and jews who only use the bible.
 
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Vatican2Rocks:
I know that pedophilia and homosexuality is not the same thing.
You are wrong: it is the reproduction of homosexuals that make homosexuals.
Most homosexuals came from heterosexual upbringing.

homosexuals may marry the way they want but that is not God’s way.
 
I know that pedophilia and homosexuality is not the same thing.
You are wrong: it is the reproduction of homosexuals that make homosexuals.
Most homosexuals came from heterosexual upbringing.

homosexuals may marry the way they want but that is not God’s way.
two homosexuals cannot procreate therefore they cannot reproduce. if a hetero has sex with a homo then there is a greater likelihood of a child being born gay.
 
two homosexuals cannot procreate therefore they cannot reproduce. if a hetero has sex with a homo then there is a greater likelihood of a child being born gay.
Since no one has been able to prove that homosexuality is genetic or inborn, how do you back up this assertion?
 
Two men or two women can not engage in sex.
This is word revision.
Sex by definition is the method by witch a species. reproduces.
The species will not last long when it deviates from this practice
 
Two men or two women can not engage in sex.
This is word revision.
Sex by definition is the method by witch a species. reproduces.
The species will not last long when it deviates from this practice
Moreover, it is open to all deviations.
I saw a program yesterday about swinging couples. It was nauseating, led to separation and it was a complete mess.
As for homosexuality, it is open for every combination: 2+3,4+1,1+2, and so on.

One might ask: what is the purpose for that?
 
Two men or two women can not engage in sex.
This is word revision.
Sex by definition is the method by witch a species. reproduces.
The species will not last long when it deviates from this practice
Using your definition, masturbation and oral sex wouldn’t be “sex.” Sounds kind of Clintonian. I think most would disagree.
 
Why does God care about which apples we eat? And yet, to their chagrin, Adam and Eve found out just how much He does care.

God made the apples, so He makes the rules about them.

God made sex, so He makes the rules about it.

The Church’s job is to teach us God’s rules so that we can understand and follow them. This helps prevent damnation and makes salvation possible. 😉
and how are you to know if the MEN making the rules are really getting it from god or just doing it for other reasons?
 
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