Why does the Church require its ministers to be unmarried, and called "priests"?

[PMV]

Why does the Roman Catholic Church require its ministers to be unmarried, and called “priests” when the Bible says they are to be married, and simply calls them pastors, teachers, and bishops? “A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife…” 1 Timothy 3:2 (Go look it up!). It continues in verses 4 and 5, "One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity; (For if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?).

 

[jc_escobar]

Hi PMV,

First of all, they CHOOSE to be unmarried as a discipline, to be able to give their life entirely to God (following the example of Paul). So in this way they have no other distractions.
They are called priests because they perform priestly duties: They offer a sacrifice and lead the worship of God on the community and have the power from Christ to administer His Grace in the Sacraments.

Blessings,
J.C.

 

[PMV]

Hi, jc_escobar.
So you mean that a priest COULD be married if he chooses?

 

[Vincent]

The Catholic Church has both married and unmarried ministers.

In the Roman rite of the Church, priests (the word comes from “presbyter” or elder) are normally chosen from those who have already committed their lives to serve God in singleness as Christ did. There are a few exceptions, for example a number of married Anglican and Lutheran ministers became Catholic and have been ordained as priests. The Church in the Roman rite often ordains married men as deacons, as well.

In the Eastern rites of the Church, there is the practice of choosing its priests either from those who have already chosen marriage or those who have already chosen the life of being single.

St. Paul’s instruction makes sense considering that in his time, most of the men who could be a bishop were already married. Thus, whether one was married wasn’t the problem. The problem was whether one was married to “one wife”.

In other words, the requirement that a bishop had to be the husband of “one wife” was to exclude candidates who had more than “one wife”. Who wants a bishop with plural marriages? Christ was specific about the requirements of marriage: “In the beginning…”

Therefore, this passage doesn’t say anything about “bishops cannot not be married.” Not one indication. If it did, what do you do about a widower? Do you exclude him? Or what do you do about a bishop whose wife dies during his ministry? Do you “un-bishop” him? Do you force him to remarry?

And the requirement about children works the same way. It doesn’t say that one had to have children. What it does say is that if one had children, the Church expects the candidate to have fathered them well before giving him the responsibility of fathering a Church. If this passage meant that children are mandatory, what do you do about a married candidate who has been unable to conceive a child with his wife? Do you exclude him? Or for a bishop whose children dies during his ministry? Do you “un-bishop” him? Do you force him to adopt, if not make babies quick?

 

[Carl]

PMV

So you mean that a priest COULD be married if he chooses?

A priest cannot choose to be married. However, if a married priest from the Anglican Church converts to Catholicism, he can choose to be a priest.

The door is opened a crack for converts only.

 

[Br.Rich_SFO]

PMV:

Why does the Roman Catholic Church require its ministers to be unmarried, and called “priests” when the Bible says they are to be married, and simply calls them pastors, teachers, and bishops? “A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife…” 1 Timothy 3:2 (Go look it up!). It continues in verses 4 and 5, "One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity; (For if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?).

In the early Church Priests and Bishops could be married. However if you look carefully at the historical documents those who were married were to no longer have sexual relations with their wives after they were Ordained.

The Church simply following St. Pauls lead made this universal law begining in the 300’s.finally achieving full force several centuries later.

The word “Priest” is the english translation of the Greek word used in the New testament. It describes one who is Ordained to offer Sacrifice.

 

[Joe_Kelley]

Our leaders are called priests because they offer sacrifice. The structure at the front is called an altar because a sacrifice is offered there.

The question is why the Protestants call the structure in their church an altar, since they have no sacrifice. Incidentally, that is not original with me. I got it from a Lutheran Pastor who asked it in a discussion with an Episcopalian “Priest”.

 

[Carl]

Brother Rich

However if you look carefully at the historical documents those who were married were to no longer have sexual relations with their wives after they were Ordained.

Do you have a source to cite for this?

Thanks,
Carl

 

[Vincent]

I think Brother Rich is referring to the Council of Carthage, canons 4, 25 and 70.

As I understand it, St. Augustine of Hippo was there.

 

[jimmy]

PMV:

Hi, jc_escobar.
So you mean that a priest COULD be married if he chooses?

In the latin rite the priests can not be married unless there is special permission from the church. You make the choice though to be a priest and stay celibate or to be married.

The church has this discipline because it makes a priest more dedicated to God. If someone is married and a priest they are divided between God and family. It is only a discipline though, so the church could change it and make it so that married people could become priests.

It does not say in the bible that they must be married, it only says that they should have only one wife.

The church may have to change this discipline in the future though because they are low on vocations.

 

[Carl]

Vincent

In the early Church Priests and Bishops could be married. However if you look carefully at the historical documents those who were married were to no longer have sexual relations with their wives after they were Ordained.

The canons you cite are nearly 400 years after Christ. I suppose you could say this was the practice of the Church at that time, but whether it was the practice of the very early Church is, I think, doubtful. The Canons cited are proof of rules being established rather than proof of earliest Church practice.

I would like to see evidence that the earliest Church practice was to disallow sexual relations between men and their wives after they were ordained. I would also like to see evidence that the general practice in the Church in the first century or two was that the married priest was the exception rather than the rule.

Can someone direct me to this evidence without being referred to a merely speculative version of the actual practice. For example, did Peter cease relations with his wife after the death of Jesus? Did he ever promote such an idea? And wouldn’t there be some record of his promoting celibacy if he did, since it is now considered such an important policy by the Church?

 

[Todd_Easton]

Carl:

Brother Rich

However if you look carefully at the historical documents those who were married were to no longer have sexual relations with their wives after they were Ordained.

Do you have a source to cite for this?

Thanks,
Carl

In William A. Jurgens’s book, The Faith of the Early Fathers, Volume 1, quoting Canon 33 of the Council of Elvira, about A.D. 300, it says, on page 256:
“It is determined that bishops, presbyters, and deacons, or all clergy stationed in the ministry, are to restrain themselves completely and are to keep themselves away from their wives and are not to beget children. Anyone who begets children is to be expelled from the honor of the clerical estate.”

 

[rarndt01]

With the shortage of priests, I believe they are going to have to allow priests to marry in the future or we simply will not have enough young men desiring to enter the priesthood who will live a lifetime of celibacy. Thus we will even have fewer priests than we do now. Rome will have to change their position twenty years from now.

 

[Strider]

PMV,
I can’t cite any references for the apostles and early presbyters living continent lives while married, but I can give you the following:
1 Cor 7:32-34 I want you to be free from anxiety. The unmarried man is anxious about the affairs of the Lord, how to please the Lord; but the married man is anxious about worldly affairs, how to please his wife and his interests are divided.
Paul is not contradicting himself between 1 Tiomothy and 1 Corinthians. In those very early days of the Church, it would have been normal for men of the church to be married, therefore difficult find ummarried men for the priesthood. In that case, a man who had been married only once was acceptable as responsible for a position of leadershipo in the Church.
It is obvious, however, from the letter to the corinthians, that Paul would much prefer single men to be priests.

God bless​

Heart of Jesus, formed by the Holy Spirit in the womb of the Virgin Mother, have mercy on us

 

[Br.Rich_SFO]

Carl:

Brother Rich

However if you look carefully at the historical documents those who were married were to no longer have sexual relations with their wives after they were Ordained.

Do you have a source to cite for this?

Thanks,
Carl

In addition to Carthage is also the council of Rome’s response to the African Bishops in 386 and Pope Siricius in a Dicrecta in 385. The other Pope concerned with clerical continence is Innocent I in a 406 letter Dominus inter addressing sixteen questions.

 

[Br.Rich_SFO]

Carl:

Brother Rich

However if you look carefully at the historical documents those who were married were to no longer have sexual relations with their wives after they were Ordained.

Do you have a source to cite for this?

Thanks,
Carl

In addition to Carthage is also the council of Rome’s response to the African Bishops in 386 and Pope Siricius in a Dicrecta in 385. The other Pope concerned with clerical continence is Innocent I in a 406 letter Dominus inter addressing sixteen questions.

 

[jeffreedy789]

‘Rome will have to change their position twenty years from now.’

i’d like to point out, for those who may not know this, that rome would not be changing their dogma (the Tradition that the church claims (and i believe) to be revealed by God and holds the same authority as scripture), nor even their doctrine, on the matter. priestly celibacy is merely a matter of disciplline, that is, the practices that the church maintains for efficacy.

alot of people would jump on the idea of ‘changing’ priests from unmarried to married, and say ‘well, if they change that, why don’t they change…’ and list a dozen items in which dogma clearly states the opposite.

just wanted to clarify. thanks.

also - very important to consider ALL of scripture when determining doctrinal (and dogma) issues. you quoted from one epistle where the leaders of a church were instructed to be husbands of only one wife. don’t forget the admonition st. paul gives that everyone should be like him, unmarried, and therefore able to commit his entire life to serving Christ, without the ‘distractions’ of taking care of his wife.

 

[Br.Rich_SFO]

Carl:

Vincent

In the early Church Priests and Bishops could be married. However if you look carefully at the historical documents those who were married were to no longer have sexual relations with their wives after they were Ordained.

The canons you cite are nearly 400 years after Christ. I suppose you could say this was the practice of the Church at that time, but whether it was the practice of the very early Church is, I think, doubtful. The Canons cited are proof of rules being established rather than proof of earliest Church practice.

I would like to see evidence that the earliest Church practice was to disallow sexual relations between men and their wives after they were ordained. I would also like to see evidence that the general practice in the Church in the first century or two was that the married priest was the exception rather than the rule.

Can someone direct me to this evidence without being referred to a merely speculative version of the actual practice. For example, did Peter cease relations with his wife after the death of Jesus? Did he ever promote such an idea? And wouldn’t there be some record of his promoting celibacy if he did, since it is now considered such an important policy by the Church?

The council of Elvira in 390 produced the first Canon (33) regarding celibacy. However it is held that Oral Tradition also addressed this issue prior to that time.

 

[Chris_Jacobsen]

A Protestant minister is not equivalent to a Catholic priest. A Protestant minister is equivalent to a Catholic deacon.

Protestant ministers and Catholic deacons both have have similar authority in their respective churches. They both can preach sermons in church, administer the sacrament of baptism, and preside over marriages.

A Catholic priest has much more authority than a Protestant minister and a Catholic deacon. A Catholic priest has received the Sacrament of Holy Orders. This is a sacrament which neither a Protestant minister nor a Catholic deacon receive.

A priest can do everything a minister and a deacon can do, plus a whole lot more. A priest can offer the Holy Sacrifice of the Mass and change bread and wine into the Body and Blood of Christ. A priest can give absolution in the Sacrament of Penance. A priest can administer the Sacrament of Extreme Unction. In special circumstances he can administer the Sacrament of Confirmation.

 

[jeffreedy789]

good point. never heard it put that way before.