Why doesn't God make everyone immaculately conceived?

[Cavalier]

Hi there,

Thanks so much btw for Fr. Vincent’s previous answer to my last question on our Lady’s Perpetual Virginity – it was really helpful! I have another question if I may that I’d like to ask regarding our Lady’s Immaculate Conception.

It occurred to me that if God could save our Lady through making sure that she was conceived immaculately (due to the merits of our Lord Jesus Christ on the Cross applied retroactively on her behalf, as it were), could He not do the same for us? In which case, why doesn’t He?

I mean, it makes sense that our Lord would allow us to be conceived in sin up until the Crucifixion of Christ, because it was only through man’s sin (particularly that of the Roman authorities and the Sanhedrin) that this was possible, and therefore only through sin that Christ’s sacrifice was possible. God destroyed sin by using it to Good.

However, after the Crucifixion, when the battle against Sin and Evil is (ultimately) won by Christ, surely there need be no more need for sin in order that God might accomplish His purpose of saving mankind? So, why not then, based on the merits of His Son, ensure that all human beings were immaculately conceived after the Cross? Why allow us to fall into concupiscence and sin when He could just as easily save us from those consequences? Especially since surely He would, by doing so, be able to save so many more people (if not all mankind)?

Any thoughts you might have that would help me with this dilemma would be very much appreciated!

Thanks so much in advance, and the Grace and Peace of Christ be with you always,

Peter

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[Fr.Vincent_Serpa]

Hi Peter,

To hear that God’s love for us as infinite leaves us with an abstraction since none of us has had experience of anything infinite. Christ could have redeemed us by just a thought. But by suffering and dying as He did, He demonstrated in a human way something of what His infinite love is. We all know what suffering is like—at least to some degree.

That almighty God would actually become one of His creatures and suffer and die as He did gives us some indication that the mystery of His incarnation and passion is considerably over our heads. We are dealing with divine mystery here.

He certainly could have redeemed us in many other ways. But He determined that we would be best served through His suffering—and ours. Remember, that even though Mary was conceived without sin, only Jesus suffered more at His passion.

Your question is an intriguing one, Any attempt at an answer will betray the human limitation of not being privy to any more of the divine mystery than He has chosen to reveal to us.

Fr. Vincent Serpa, O.P.