Why doesn't the Protestant "Apocrypha" match the Catholic Deuterocanon?

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Thomasbradley312

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This is one I have somewhat laid out on here in somewhat different ways on some other posts but here goes:
The Catholic Bible has seven more books than Protestants.
Tobit
Judith
Wisdom
Sirach
Baruch( With Letter of Jeremiah as Ch 6)
1 Maccabees
2 Maccabees

Also are additions to Daniel and Esther in our Bibles.
Prayer of Azariah and Song of the Three Jews
Susanna
Bel and the Dragon


Most Catholics think the Protestant Apocrypha is equal to the Catholic Deuterocanonical Books, but they include three others.
1 Esdras
2 Esdras
Prayer of Manasseh


So what is up with the inconsistency? How did these books end up in the Protestant Apocrypha if they were never considered a part of the Catholic canon to begin with? Wouldn’t one think that these three obviously had to have been part of the Bible before Trent otherwise they would not have been in the Protestant Apocrypha?
Also I read Catholics usually call them 3 and 4 Esdras. I’m just confused on the inconsistency. Did the Church at one time consider these three texts scripture and Trent rejected them?

https://www.kingjamesbibleonline.org/Apocrypha-Books/
 
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Were they in their apocrypha from the beginning, or were they recently added?
 
The Prayer of Manasseh appears as an appendix to many editions of the Vulgate Bible since the council of Trent.
 
It’s been nearly 20 years since I’ve given this any study, but (if I recall) the Protestant “Apocrypha” is based on both Catholic and Orthodox scriptures that they do not accept as canon. 3 and 4 Esdras plus others are still in the Orthodox canon.
 
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I would say that there’s a certain matter of ‘perspective’ to be considered here…
The Catholic Bible has seven more books than Protestants.
No, folks removed books from the Bible, and therefore, Protestant Bibles have seven less books than Catholic Bibles.
Also are additions to Daniel and Esther in our Bibles.
No… there are deletions from Daniel and Esther in non-Catholic Bibles.

It sounds pedantic to put it that way, but it more accurately describes the situation: it wasn’t the Catholic Church who changed the canon of the Bible, it was Reformers who did this. 🤷‍♂️
Wouldn’t one think that these three obviously had to have been part of the Bible before Trent otherwise they would not have been in the Protestant Apocrypha?
Perhaps, if one thinks that the Orthodox Church wasn’t also in existence in the 1500s… 😉
 
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