C
crumblymunky
Guest
My question is this: why did Eastern Rite Catholics maintain priestly marriage, while the Latin Rite did not?
Was it simply that the Latin Rite was more inclined to a stricter ruling on such a thing?
If so, did the Latin Rite attempt to force this upon the Eastern Church, and when they did not give in, believed them to be heretics?
Was it simply that the Latin Rite was more inclined to a stricter ruling on such a thing?
If so, did the Latin Rite attempt to force this upon the Eastern Church, and when they did not give in, believed them to be heretics?