Why has Latin been chosen like the liturgic language of the Holy See?

[Nicea325]

You might know that I am an admirer of Israel (in many senses, specially because maybe all my time is used for mirare ad one of his daughters). But not be afraid! To be emebelessed with the ideation of follow the Mossaic Law just has shown me earlier the via Crucis. I am shinningly impressioned by the respect I must have towards the Holy See. I see well that I must adopt her historic life and it is so such as because I admire the jewish ethos rewarding Hebrew that I do this question.

I know the historic datum: After take Georgia, Armenia and Ethiopia the Church took the heart of Rome - this is incredible, first it was taken the heart of Japhet (Aryans used to live at Caucasus, aren’t them Caucasians?), second it was taken the heart of Ham (Ethiopia) when will be pursuit take the heart of the fleshful Semites - but that is a different thread - I know that Rome was the maxime conquest of the Holy Church - the question of Pilatos: What is truth? was finally responsed.

You see: I am student at History BA and I am specially linked at my heart to make this kind of archeologics
My question is not about data but about the life that beats behind them. What is the charisma that Latin shows?
For example:I know that Jews speak Hebrew since Moses spread it among them but that which is to me interesting is the fact that v gr Hebrews terms for property don’t affect the object - such as in latin I say: Ego sum servum Dei (of Deus) - and they are neither an independent term - such as in English I say I am citizen of the United States. In Hebrew it is said: I am bat mitzvah - I am a daughter of THE Commandement - and the affected thing is not the object - mitzvah - but the subject - bat means no “daugther” but “daughter” of. This is indeed eloquent on the issue that we must gave ourselves to the Sacred Heart of Christ (or in the Jewish case, to the Mossaic Law), Hebrews says it well because in Hebrew the very real word representing the subject is affected by the genitive case) Using aristotelic term: I am not seeking the efficent cause (the Church conquered Rome and Rome conquered the Church) I am seeking the formal cause: Why is the spirit that beats under to have chosen Latin as the language par excellence of the Western Catholic Church?

I think the explanation that follows: Romans were the masters of the Laws. Such grey as the stone of their building their heart was grey. They were THE obeyding people - who were awarded with the Largest Empire - not as their more hurried brothers - the Greeks. Even this lead them by perverted vias - like the love to coitus more ferarum - they finally accepted to offer their heart to the Holy Spirit - while most of the children of Israel didn’t.
But I think that this is the way of think of an individualistic man… and regarding to the facts of civilisation it can be said that what Aristotle said: When a man habits without someone else so he is a God (an angel maybe) or he is a beast… I suspect that I could be a beast.
I wanna your answers on this topic

A final question: I have not any book about Ecclesiastic Latin, is one about Classic Latin okey?

Well that is like asking: Why do countries in Latin America speak Spanish,minus Brazil? Because the Spainards colonized there and it became the language of the areas. Latin was the language spoken in the western part of the Roman Empire and Greek in the East.

 

[SonCatcher]

So why was the inscription ordered by Pilate written in Latin, as well as Greek and Hebrew? Seems like a waste of time on his part, no?

Doesn’t seem like the Greek sign is much of an argument. Many non-Germans understand a “Verboten” sign.

Although Greek was the language of commerce and education, Latin was the language of government. The inscription probably needed a Latin translation to fulfill legal requirements.

 

[Mintaka]

Even when Greek was the language of commerce throughout the Mediterranean, even after the imperial power moved to Constantinople, Latin was the language of law and government in the Roman Empire. After the imperial seat moved to Constantinople, people in the West started to use a lot of Latin in normal life and literature again, and there was a lot of pride in its beauty and strength.

Anyway, whatever language people use for Mass, that language is dressed up in its Sunday best when used at Mass.

 

[jja619]

The fact that Latin is dead and therefore won’t evolve is probably a big reason as to why it is still the liturgical language. That way, ambiguities in meaning are less likely as time passes.

 

[ConstantineTG]

Although Greek was the language of commerce and education, Latin was the language of government. The inscription probably needed a Latin translation to fulfill legal requirements.

This could be it as well. Here in Canada it’s mandated that labels are bilingual and government signs are bilingual. But officially only New Brunswick is bilingual. Everywhere else is officially English and Quebec is officially French. So not just because there’s Latin on the cross meant Jesus spoke Latin (but as God, of course he can. I meant he used it). Most Canadians do not speak French but we had to deal with the bilingual everything.