Why "pro-choice" is a misnomer in the U.S

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fnr

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Abortion in the United States is primarily a means by which fertile women can have sex without the perceived consequences of becoming a mother. As such, it primarily is a means of avoiding the consequences of one’s prior choices. Here is my rationale:

    • Rape accounts for ≤1% of all abortions. Rape is illegal and a criminal offense.
    • Pregnancy is an objective and predictable consequence of consensual sexual intercourse between a fertile male and a fertile female.
    • All women receiving abortions are fertile, or were at the time of conception.
    • All methods of birth control have nonzero failure rates (see, for example, Trussell 2011).
    • Pregnancy would not take place but for sexual intercourse or sexual activities that expose the vagina to semen.
    • 50% of women receiving abortions were using contraception at the time they were getting pregnant. The majority in Planned Parenthood v. Casey explicitly cite abortion as a way to avoid life disruption in the event of contraceptive failure as a rationale for upholding Roe v. Wade.
 
I thought you were going to talk about how a lot of women are actually pressured or coerced into getting an abortion they do not want, or how a lot of women are outright forced into getting an abortion by threat of violence from their parents or boyfriends, or how some abortionists preform an abortion all the way through even if the woman procuring the abortion changes her mind right before or partway through the process, or how some national governments like the Chinese Government actually forces women to get abortions as part of a population control measure, or about how abortion clinics actually withhold information and spread misinformation about the unborn to prevent informed decision making, or about how the father of the unborn child gets no legal say over whether or not the child lives or dies, or about how none of the unborn children who are aborted ever choose to be executed for the crime of existing.
 
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