Why say "Sola Fide"? II

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The following is a quote that I was permitted to use by a Lutheran on a non-Catholic forum, spelling out his view on justification and the role faith plays in it. Any comments? I know, it’s a bit long but it seems to cover a lot of ground, and I’m not sure whether or not all concepts in it can necessarily be reconciled with each other? How consistent is this with your understanding of Lutheranism or the Reformed position?

"We must make a distinction between two kinds of righteousness: the righteousness Coram Deo, that is the righteousness which is before God; this is the passive righteousness imputed to us by grace which is ours as pure gift. This is the righteousness by which men are justified, freely, by God’s grace alone through faith, as it is written, " For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek. For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith for faith, as it is written, ‘The righteous shall live by faith.’ " (Romans 1:16-17). There is also a second righteousness, a righteousness Coram Mundo, that is righteousness before the world, this is an active or civil righteousness. This is the righteousness by which I am not justified, but rather by which my neighbor is loved, treated well, and whose well-being is lifted up.

When we walk in the new obedience that is in Christ, by the grace of God, we are not justifying ourselves; but rather the works of God which are ours to do in Christ are done by the strength and power of God–so that I cannot boast in myself or my works, but only in Christ and His cross.

This active justice of loving my neighbor and new obedience in Christ is not for my salvation, for my justification, it is not for the benefit of God; it is for the benefit of my neighbor, for God’s creation. It is my life lived toward God’s creatures in love.

The one who calls Christ Savior only knows himself as a sinner before God, justified freely by the grace of God, and is called righteous only by the righteousness of Jesus Christ received as pure gift, as precious garment over his filthy and no-good works. And now justified walks in good works, not as though such good works are of any benefit to himself before God, but because the good command of God provides the way by which he should conduct himself in this life before the world, his fellow man, and indeed all God’s creatures. To lay down one’s life, in love, for the sake of others, in imitation of Christ our Lord.

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The one who practices righteousness is the one who, in faith, seeks to do the works of God in love toward his neighbor; not toward his own justification and salvation before God, but rather toward the good of his fellow creatures in the humble new obedience in Christ. The one who practices sin is not the one who merely fails and falters as a sinner, but the one who spurns and spits upon the new obedience, demonstrating faithlessness, and shows disdain for the grace which has saved him.

Thus the Legalist and the Moralist do not practice righteousness, but rather practice lawlessness; for theirs is not faith, but faithlessness (and " all which is not from faith is sin “); they boast in their works, not in Gods grace. They proclaim themselves righteous by their works, not by the Christ who saves and covers them. They call themselves holy, not because of the Spirit who dwells in them and makes them holy by the mercy of God which is in Christ, but because they think that by their power, strength, and work they have attained holiness. These are those who shipwreck their faith, disdain the works of God, and prefer glory to the cross.”
 
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Most of this seems in line with standard Reformed positions. The “Coram Deo” and “Corum Mundo” distinction wouldn’t be common knowledge among Presbyterians, though. That is, as far as I know, kind of uniquely Lutheran, at least explicitly. I’d imagine other Protestants would embrace it if they knew of it.

Of course, the existence of such a distinction doesn’t necessarily entail that “Coram Mundo” isn’t part of justification in some way. The works which justified in the Parable of Sheep and Goats, for instance, would either fall under “Coram Mundo”, making it part justification; “Coram Deo”, which would require more nuance than presented here to the point that it doesn’t serve the sola fide position; or some other category not mentioned here, which would also not serve the sola fide position.
 
Thanks ralfy-I certainly wouldn’t disagree with that, as the true definition of justice or righteousness for man. When we have that kind of love we have everything that God wants from us-and for us to be. That’s man’s perfection. And the Church actually teaches that we’ll be judged on that love at the end of the day. Faith is the doorway to it, because it’s the doorway to God who, alone, can accomplish this in us as we cooperate with His grace.
 
Thank you. It appears you have a good handle on this theology. I’m still chewing on it. 😄
 
This is a bit confusing. Wikipedia is referencing the Shema. This is a prayer from very early Old Testament days and was a daily prayer for the Jewish people.

Jesus, as a pious Jew, would have been praying the Shema daily. Several times daily.
 
It is confusing because I believe the two commandments should be clearly stated by any writer of an article like that, and they should also state that Jesus is referencing the Shema, and reciting the Shema. Jesus also did this when tempted by the devil. Only replied in Old Testament Scripture.
 
What you read above is only an excerpt, and is automatically entered by the forum software when a link is given. If you click on the blue text, you will see the whole article, including references to the Shema.
 
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