Why tears?

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Trevor_Stamm

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Firstly, why does the body have an intense physical reaction, crying, to a purely immaterial process in one’s own mind/heart/soul such as complete sadness or an over abundant amount of joy (or for a child, intense pain)?

Secondly, could this simple thing be a proof for hylemorphic dualism? (Those unaware of this dualism, read this)

Note, do not response with the physical process how the lacrimal glands create tears. This is a mind/body question on why the lacrimal glands react to an emotional stimulation.
 
Trevor_Stamm said:
Firstly, why does the body have an intense physical reaction, crying,
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As far as I know crying works as an exhaust to the sadness and sorrow of that person, when the person cries he/she will feel better after a short time unlike the one who force himself/herself not to cry which might lead to some sort of heart attack later on in his/her life.
 
Trevor_Stamm said:
Firstly, why does the body have an intense physical reaction, crying, to a purely immaterial process in one’s own mind/heart/soul such as complete sadness or an over abundant amount of joy (or for a child, intense pain)?

Secondly, could this simple thing be a proof for hylemorphic dualism? (Those unaware of this dualism, read this)

Note, do not response with the physical process how the lacrimal glands create tears. This is a mind/body question on why the lacrimal glands react to an emotional stimulation.
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Trevor:

I’m trying to understand. What would the argument look like that concluded that matter/form dualism is the unassailable result of a perfect dialectical investigation of crying? (I’m not saying you’re incorrect, just would like to see the “logic.”)

God bless,
jd
 
JDaniel said:
Trevor:

I’m trying to understand. What would the argument look like that concluded that matter/form dualism is the unassailable result of a perfect dialectical investigation of crying? (I’m not saying you’re incorrect, just would like to see the “logic.”)

God bless,
jd
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It seems very simple and will keep it simple as I am not a fan of diatribes.

As we know the effects of emotional acts, such extreme sadness or joy, are sourced from the form of the person, or the soul. The perplexity of such an effect not just affects the mood of the form but also has real and material affect of the matter, or body, that is in what we experience as crying. There are also other reactions throughout the body, Goosebumps and the such. As a Thomist, I see this as the result of hylemorphic dualism and that the form/matter of the person are acting as one substance in the regard of intense emotional acts. I wish I could expound more on this at the moment but I am writing from my phone and would like to see your response, and others, to at least the framework of this investigation.
 
Trevor_Stamm said:
Tony, why is this in my thread? My friend, I mean no offense but this is not inquiry about the after effects of tears but why does the material body uncontrollably react to a immaterial stimulation. Enjoyed the link though 👍
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Trevor, the answer is surely that the material and immaterial cannot be sharply isolated from each other. A person is not a ghost in a machine but a unified entity. Complete sadness is not a purely immaterial process because there is constant interaction between the mind and the body. The effects of thoughts and feelings are visible on a EEG machine.
 
tonyrey said:
Trevor, the answer is surely that the material and immaterial cannot be sharply isolated from each other. A person is not a ghost in a machine but a unified entity. Complete sadness is not a purely immaterial process because there is constant interaction between the mind and the body. The effects of thoughts and feelings are visible on a EEG machine.
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Oh yes, truly we agree. This is the centrality of my point. Forgive me for misinterpreting your reply.

So do you think this is proof positive of hylemorphic dualism (Thomistic dualism)?
 
Trevor_Stamm said:
Oh yes, truly we agree. This is the centrality of my point. Forgive me for misinterpreting your reply.

So do you think this is proof positive of hylemorphic dualism (Thomistic dualism)?
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I believe it is certainly the most adequate explanation of the relation between mind and matter. 🙂
 
Trevor_Stamm said:
Firstly, why does the body have an intense physical reaction, crying, to a purely immaterial process in one’s own mind/heart/soul such as complete sadness or an over abundant amount of joy (or for a child, intense pain)?

Secondly, could this simple thing be a proof for hylemorphic dualism? (Those unaware of this dualism, read this)

Note, do not response with the physical process how the lacrimal glands create tears. This is a mind/body question on why the lacrimal glands react to an emotional stimulation.
Click to expand...
I don’t think any other creatures cry (or laugh). This may reenforce your point.

But I’m not sure about the dualism. Could you explain the difference between hylemorphic dualism and Cartesianism?

In the meantime, I’ll take a closer look at the article.
 
levinas12 said:
I don’t think any other creatures cry (or laugh). This may reenforce your point.

But I’m not sure about the dualism. Could you explain the difference between hylemorphic dualism and Cartesianism?

In the meantime, I’ll take a closer look at the article.
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I just read the article … it clearly tries to differentiate its position from Cartesianism … by invoking substantial form (which is not consciousness) … but this philosophic move may create a new difficulty … how to distinguish the person from the form … I don’t think Aristotlean concepts can handle “person” - particularly, I don’t think “matter” explains the uniqueness of the “person”.
 
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