I do hope this is the right forum for this,but I have been wondering over one (well,a lot of things but right now this.) Jh.2:4. Far from be one who are against anything Christ said,and maybe at that time things were different,well,they was for sure,but if I would have called my mother “woman” I would still be grounded! Are here anyone brave enough to explain His choice of word?
when Jesus calls His mother “woman” in John 2:4, and again in John 19:26, it is actually, in His language, meant as a very beautiful endearment, but it, unfortunately, got lost in the translation,
and despite the poor translation, what we also get from this expression is that By referring to His mother as “woman” He distinguished her from just being His own mother and gave her to all of us, so really it was given with the most beautiful intent,
and what else would we expect from Jesus?
another point in His life that is often taken the wrong way, is when, as a child, He went to the temple without Joseph and Mary knowing, and they “Sought” Him “sorrowing” and He asked His mother,
“How is it that you sought me? did you not know, that I must be about my father’s business?”
many take this as if it were expressed coldly or in a serious manner, but when Jesus said this, He said it very sweetly and compassionately, wrapping His arms around His mother and looking up to her lovingly.
it’s easy to read things the wrong way, just as we do online so often, simply because you cannot hear it with your ears, and so, very often we take Jesus’ words as we envision Him in our hearts, serious and authoritative, but we know Jesus was most merciful and compassionate, He was love itself, meek and Humble of heart,
so when we read His words, we should keep that in mind.
alright, hope this helps, take care.