Would this be a mortal sin or not?

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JMM1957

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I think that I may know the correct answer to this question, but just to be sure before I go to confession, I wanted to ask. If a husband and wife are being intimate, but NOT having intercourse, and the wife intentionally causes the husband to ejaculate, is that the same kind of sin as masturbation? Also, if a mortal sin, I assume that both the husband and wife would be guilty of that sin at the same time? Thank you for your answer in advance. John
 
Hi,

Yes, it would be a mortal because she would be intending to accomplish what masturbation accomplishes. To the degree that the husband supported her in this by agreeing with her act, he would be guilty of the sin as well.

Fr. Vincent Serpa, O.P.
 
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