J
JMM1957
Guest
I think that I may know the correct answer to this question, but just to be sure before I go to confession, I wanted to ask. If a husband and wife are being intimate, but NOT having intercourse, and the wife intentionally causes the husband to ejaculate, is that the same kind of sin as masturbation? Also, if a mortal sin, I assume that both the husband and wife would be guilty of that sin at the same time? Thank you for your answer in advance. John