Wycliffe was a heretic but his translation wasn't?

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oneelbk

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From the research I’ve done, it seems it wasn’t so Wycliffe’s translation of Scripture that was at issue. Most people give it a thumbs down for readability but a tacit thumbs up for orthodoxy.

Rather the issue with Wycliffe stems from his heretical ideas.

Thus had he been a faithful Catholic theologian (à la St. Bede the Venerable, who translated some Scripture into English), there would not have been the issue with him that there was.

Is this accurate? If not, please, please, please give an example (or three, even) of why Wycliffe’s translation is/was problematic.

Also what can anyone tell me about the acceptance/permissibility/etc. of English translations of the Bible in the 14th c. I know they existed – at least in part – but what was the official stand on them? Was it, “Go ahead, just make sure you get it approved before you release it”? Or was it something else altogether?

Finally I can understand disinterring the body of an excommunicated heretic from sacred ground. What I can’t understand is why they wouldn’t have simply buried the man’s corpse in a cemetery for those who died in a similar state? Or did they dump all bodies of heretics in the river? Thanks.
 
My understanding is that it was his introduction/preface that was the problem. It was full of anti-papal rhetoric and encouraged the reader to interpret the Scriptures in such a way that diminished certain Catholic doctrines.
However, I have never read it, I am just stating what others have said.
 
From this article by Matthew A.C. Newsome


“Wycliff had produced a translation of the Bible that was corrupt and full of heresy. It was not an accurate rendering of sacred Scripture.” "Both the Church and the secular authorities condemned it and did their best to prevent it from being used to teach false doctrine and morals " (Newsome, source linked above).

From another article by Trent Horn, we have an example of him introducing a new word into Scripture:
“Although allusions to this creature can be traced back to Pliny the Elder, the 14th century dissident Catholic John Wycliffe was the first to use the term “cockatrice” in his popular translation of the Bible.”

And this article on him gives some insight to his heretical views, but makes it unclear in the end whether he mistranslated portions of the Scriptures, or added prefaces with heretical ideas to already existing English translations?
 
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