P
Peter_J
Guest
Hi all.
Like many Eastern Catholics, I’ve given quite a lot of thought to the phrase “Orthodox in union with Rome”. (Not in regard to all non-Latin Catholics, of course. For example, clearly it makes no sense to apply the term to the Maronite Catholic Church, since it doesn’t correspond to any Orthodox Church. Ditto for the Chaldean Catholic Church and the Syro-Malabar Catholic Church.)
I’ve probably also, over the years, heard all the different objections to that phrase … “They’re not canonical Orthodox Churches.” “They’re not the original Orthodox Churches, but rather parallel churches intended to replace the Orthodox Churches.” “What about Latinizations?” etc.
And for many years I’ve avoided using “Orthodox in communion with Rome”, but recently I’ve been wondering if it should, in fact, be used. This is not a complete 180, mind you: I haven’t gotten from denial to unqualified acceptance of it. I think many of the above objections are valid, and hence I think “Orthodox in communion with Rome” should at least be qualified – and I think there’s room for different opinions about how to qualify/understand it. But the point is, I think I am coming to see that flat-out denying the name “Orthodox in communion with Rome” is to ignore, or greatly oversimplify, history. (I’m reminded of something I’ve heard: that the Union of Brest was explained to the common people as “The Pope has become Orthodox.”)
Has anyone else come to this same conclusion?
Like many Eastern Catholics, I’ve given quite a lot of thought to the phrase “Orthodox in union with Rome”. (Not in regard to all non-Latin Catholics, of course. For example, clearly it makes no sense to apply the term to the Maronite Catholic Church, since it doesn’t correspond to any Orthodox Church. Ditto for the Chaldean Catholic Church and the Syro-Malabar Catholic Church.)
I’ve probably also, over the years, heard all the different objections to that phrase … “They’re not canonical Orthodox Churches.” “They’re not the original Orthodox Churches, but rather parallel churches intended to replace the Orthodox Churches.” “What about Latinizations?” etc.
And for many years I’ve avoided using “Orthodox in communion with Rome”, but recently I’ve been wondering if it should, in fact, be used. This is not a complete 180, mind you: I haven’t gotten from denial to unqualified acceptance of it. I think many of the above objections are valid, and hence I think “Orthodox in communion with Rome” should at least be qualified – and I think there’s room for different opinions about how to qualify/understand it. But the point is, I think I am coming to see that flat-out denying the name “Orthodox in communion with Rome” is to ignore, or greatly oversimplify, history. (I’m reminded of something I’ve heard: that the Union of Brest was explained to the common people as “The Pope has become Orthodox.”)
Has anyone else come to this same conclusion?