1 & 2 Maccabees.

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Nelka

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Why did the Jews (after Christianity had begun) get rid of the books of Maccabees? I see why they got rid of the book of Wisdom as it relates to Jesus but surely these two books don’t have that problem for them so why the loss?

I know Protestants don’t have them, they don’t like the praying for the dead part but Luther took authority from these Jews instead of the Catholic Church.

What about Hanukkah?

Thanks.
 
My understanding is that our Jewish brothers rejected 1 & 2 Maccabees (along with the other books of the deuterocanon) because the ‘original’ Hebrew versions are lost to history, and the books only exist in Greek translations (e.g., the Septuagint).

It could of course be translated back from the Greek into Hebrew, but it is almost certain to have lost some of its meaning in the process. So I believe they are viewed as ‘interesting reads’ by the Jewish community, but because they exist only in translation they cannot be considered canonical.

I also suspect that part of what went on in the early days of Christianity was a sort of ‘get back to basics’ movement in the Jewish community under the threat (perceived or real) of Christianity usurping Judaism, and so things like the Deuterocanon, which were seemingly ‘of the Greeks (i.e. Christians)’ and not ‘truly’ Jewish, were suppressed or fell out of favor.
 
Not only that, but the first book of Maccabees shines a favorable light on the Romans - who then ended up destroying the Second Jewish Temple about 200 years after the events of 1st Maccabees. Add to that the usurpation of the High Priesthood by the Maccabees… and, well. The Maccabees remained folk heroes for their defeat of the Seluecids and forcing the Seluecids to allow the Jews to be semi-autonomous, but there are many things that happened during that era that later Jews didn’t really like.
 
I wonder if any scrolls were to be found, if they would add them to the Tanakh.
 
I wonder if any scrolls were to be found, if they would add them to the Tanakh.
Only 1 Maccabees holds the possibility of a Hebrew original. 2 Maccabees is an original Greek work

That said, even if a lost 1 Maccabees Hebrew manuscript were to be found, it is disqualified from the ketuvim on the grounds that it does not date to the time of Ezra or earlier.

The other irritating thing about 1 Maccabees for the Jews is that it has a long, wordy chapter singing the praises of the Roman Republic. After 63 BC through AD 135 and beyond, that probably isn’t a very good chapter to include in a Jewish canon.
 
Only 1 Maccabees holds the possibility of a Hebrew original. 2 Maccabees is an original Greek work

That said, even if a lost 1 Maccabees Hebrew manuscript were to be found, it is disqualified from the ketuvim on the grounds that it does not date to the time of Ezra or earlier.

The other irritating thing about 1 Maccabees for the Jews is that it has a long, wordy chapter singing the praises of the Roman Republic. After 63 BC through AD 135 and beyond, that probably isn’t a very good chapter to include in a Jewish canon.
Good point!
 
Why did the Jews (after Christianity had begun) get rid of the books of Maccabees? I see why they got rid of the book of Wisdom as it relates to Jesus but surely these two books don’t have that problem for them so why the loss?

I know Protestants don’t have them, they don’t like the praying for the dead part but Luther took authority from these Jews instead of the Catholic Church.

What about Hanukkah?

Thanks.
Most of all for Hanukah, I would figure the Jews having it to relate to it.
 
Another possible reason why 1 Maccabees was never really accepted to be on par with the undisputed scriptural books is basically because to be blunt, it’s pretty much a piece of Hasmonean propaganda.

The dynasty the Maccabees founded, the Hasmoneans, appointed themselves kings and high priests of Judea. But you might say their claim for both titles is questionable traditionally: they were not of the line of King David (whereas a common expectation for a long time is that a Davidic descendant will regain the throne), and while they were priests they were not descendants of Zadok the high priest - in other words, they were not of the traditional high priestly line. That’s the reason why not every Jew liked them: the founders of the sect at Qumran, for instance, is believed to be a group of Zadokite priests who were disillusioned by the rise of the Maccabees/Hasmoneans into power and so withdrew themselves into the desert. Another group called the Hasidim (Hasideans), who had originally supported the Maccabees, later turned against them partly because they saw them (the Hasmoneans) as being too political and violent. (Note, the Hasideans are possibly one of the precursor groups to the Pharisees.) From the perspective of the haters, the Maccabees are really usurpers, gaining and holding onto power that were not theirs.

The author of 1 Maccabees basically tries to assert the right to rule of the Maccabees/Hasmoneans (despite their lack of the traditional necessary cred) by portraying them as the divinely-appointed saviors of Israel. It was their ‘official’ history, so to speak. (2 Maccabees is also propagandistic in the sense that one of its apparent aims is to convince Jews in Egypt to show support for the Hasmoneans by celebrating Hanukkah as a feast day – which originally is, of course, the commemoration of their rededication of the Temple, and with it, to attempt to de-legitimize the Zadokite priestly line, who had settled in Egypt and built a rival temple in Leontopolis.) And of course, those who do not agree with the Hasmoneans’ version of events would not like it. So it wouldn’t have been a universally-accepted work.

Of course, when the Hasmoneans were eventually replaced by the Herods and then by the Romans, 1 (and 2) Maccabees just became more redundant and problematic. I mean, who would want a work that celebrates a now-defunct dynasty whose very existence was kind of questionable? (Plus, in the case of 1 Maccabees at least, there was the whole bit about praising Romans, which wouldn’t really be welcome by the 1st century AD.)

And then, after the Romans finally destroyed Jerusalem and showed the Jews who was boss (so to speak) during the late 1st-early 2nd century afterwards, the whole original concept of Hanukkah itself - a celebration of a victorious guerrilla war for Jewish political autonomy - became questionable. This was a time when Jewish survivors were disassociating themselves from the Zealots and other freedom fighters who (in their view) started the mess, and to be frank, the Maccabees and their guerrilla tactics against the Greeks were kind of seen as encouraging Zealotry. And this is the reason why the modern Hanukkah focuses instead on the miracle of the oil and all that: the later Rabbis spiritualized, depoliticized Hanukkah to remove any traces of its militaristic origins. In this climate it’s hard to imagine Jews becoming more favorable with 1 and 2 Maccabees.
 
The fact is that this objection is moot because Hebrew copies were found in the Dead Sea Scrolls in the 1950s. See Dead Sea Scrolls don’t include the Apocrypha?
Just to clarify: no copies of 1 or 2 Maccabees were found among the DSS. And it’s unlikely that they would be there in the first place, considering how the Qumran Community was apparently very anti-Hasmonean.

The only deuterocanonical books found in the Judaean desert are Tobit (five copies from Qumran: four in Aramaic, one in Hebrew), Sirach (three manuscripts: two - only three chapters’ worth - from Qumran, one - six chapters represented - from Masada. In fact, one of the two Qumran texts is actually not a manuscript of Sirach at all, but a scroll of the Psalms which happened to contain the second canticle from Sirach 51 (vv.13-30)), and a small scrap in Greek that contains what looks like the Letter of Jeremiah (only two words legible).

The DSS really only helped us on Tobit: up to that point, all scholars had were the different Greek and Latin versions of the work and medieval translations/retellings of the book into Hebrew and Aramaic, all different from each other. As for Sirach, medieval Hebrew copies of the book were already found before the DSS were discovered; the DSS texts - which are substantially the same as these copies, with of course the inevitable minor difference - showed us that these medieval copies are fairly good representations of the Hebrew original. As for the Letter of Jeremiah: well, there are only two legible words on the scrap, as mentioned, so it’s not really a big one. But from what we can see, the text of the scrap does seem to vary a bit from the standard Greek version of the text, so it’s interesting in that respect.
 
Arigato Patricksan. You’re always good at antiquities. 👍

Still, these very discoveries do make moot the argument that none existed in Hebrew and Aramaic and lay to rest St. Jerome’s question. (Hence also Luther’s) 🙂
 
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