1 Corinthians 15: 2

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Last Sunday (the 5th Sunday of Ordinary Time) the second reading came from 1 Corinthians 15: 1-11. Verse 2 says “Through it you are being saved,…”. For some reason this verse started me thinking, being saved or are saved? The English Standard Version translates verse 2 as “are being saved” but Douay-Rheims as well as the New International Version translates it as “are saved”. Now to me there is a big difference between “being saved” and “are saved” If I am drowning “being saved” means I am being drag to shored (into the boat). Where as, “are saved” I am already on the shore(in the boat). So, what is the correct translation of the original text? Am I making a mountain out of a mole hill?
 
If we take the Magesterial teaching, the meaning does not mean that we are 100 percent assured of our salvation.
 
If we take the Magesterial teaching, the meaning does not mean that we are 100 percent assured of our salvation.
This would be an incorrect interpretation of this verse. Either you are misreading the “magisterial” interpretation (I placed this in quotes because as far as I can tell there has never been an infallible declaration or interpretation of this verse), or the “magisterial” interpretation is incorrect. I will explain why in a moment.
Now to me there is a big difference between “being saved” and “are saved” If I am drowning “being saved” means I am being drag to shored (into the boat). Where as, “are saved” I am already on the shore(in the boat).
Your question isn’t making a mountain out of a molehill, it is a legitimate question regarding soteriology. The verb in the passage is in the present indicative middle voice or passive voice (Greek does not have a form that distinguishes the passive or middle voice - this is determined by context). What this means is that the word which the douay rheims version translates as “are being saved” and the NIV and other versions translates as “are saved” is in the present tense. However, there is no reference to time for whether the action is something that began in the past and is continuing into the future, or whether it is undefined. So for the moment, we will discuss the indicative. The indicative says something that is certain, this is in contrast to the subjunctive which expresses something that is conditional or speculative. In other words, Paul is saying that this is happening and it is certain that it is happening. The middle voice means that the subject is performing an action for the benefit of himself. The passive voice would mean that the subject is the recipient or beneficiary of the action, but is not the one performing it. The NIV or other versions may be relying on Paul’s statements in Romans and elsewhere that God is the one who justifies in order to bank on the passive mood. In this context, it would be appropriate to render the verse either way because in English we would use either phrasing to communicate the middle or passive voice. It is not a reflection on whether it is a past action that needs completion, or whether the act is speculative or certain.

Now, let’s look at the passage: Now I make known to you, brethren, the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received, in which also you stand, by which also you are saved, if you hold fast the word which I preached to you, unless you believed in vain.

In other words, Paul is saying that he preached the word to the brethren at Corinth and that if they received this word, and stand in this word, they certainly are saved by it. He prefaces this though at the end by saying unless they believed in vain. In other words, if they didn’t receive his word in faith, then his word has no power to save. That being said, Paul again, demonstrates through this verbiage, that if they received the word by faith, then they are saved.
 
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I’ve heard it said by someone (I think a Catholic apologist, but I’m not sure) that we both have been saved and are being saved. It’s both a past event and an ongoing process.
 
The big point here is not whether God saves, Paul makes this certain through the use of the present indicative, but whether one actually received the word in the first place. If you continue through the passage, the passage is explaining the certainty of the resurrection. So again, did they receive Paul’s word that Christ died and was truly resurrected? If they don’t believe in the resurrection, their faith is in vain, because if he wasn’t resurrected Christ doesn’t save.
 
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‘Therefore, my beloved, as you have always obeyed, so now, not only as in my presence but much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling.’ - Philippians 2:12
 
For some reason this verse started me thinking, being saved or are saved? … So, what is the correct translation of the original text?
The most literal translation is “you are being saved”, although, for the sake of ease of expression, “you are saved” sounds more natural in English. The problem with the latter, though, is that it allows a person to misunderstand the tense of the verb.

The word in the original is σῴζεσθε (‘sozesthe’), which is a present indicative passive verb here. It’s not a predicate nominative (“you are a wizard”), in which case the noun reflects back to you (‘you’ are the one who is a ‘wizard’). Here, the writer isn’t saying “you are [a] saved [person].”

Unfortunately, in English, “you are saved” looks like it could be a predicate nominative. So, although it’s a reasonable translation, it seems that the translation that makes the meaning more clear is “you are being saved”. By translating it this way, it’s more clear that the verb is the passive “are being saved.”

So… both translations are ‘right’, but it’s important to understand what they’re saying.

Does that help?
 
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Paul has made patently clear that salvation is like a race and it is not complete until you end the race.
No one is awarded a medal until the finish line is crossed.
Also the verse says: By the Gospel, too, you are being saved, if you hold to the understanding that I preached to you, lest you believe in vain. (I Corinthians 15:2 [CPDV]).
So the Gospel is contributing to the act of Salvation but is by no means the exclusive factor of it.
 
Paul has made patently clear that salvation is like a race and it is not complete until you end the race.
No one is awarded a medal until the finish line is crossed.
It is not patently clear. When Paul speaks of running the race, he is not questioning his salvation, but talking about the example he has set for his brothers in Christ through his ministry so as not to make them stumble. He speaks of disciplining himself for the benefit of the community, not as a prerequisite for salvation. This theme precedes the verses in 1 Corinthians 9 that you are referencing, and continues throughout 1 Corinthians 10.
Also the verse says: By the Gospel, too , you are being saved, if you hold to the understanding that I preached to you, lest you believe in vain. (I Corinthians 15:2 [CPDV]).
So the Gospel is contributing to the act of Salvation but is by no means the exclusive factor of it.
The “too” which is repeated here is not referring to some other action which Paul does not here list. It merely is stringing together the actions that Paul is explicitly referencing. What Paul is specifically referencing is his proclamation of the gospel, which they also received, upon which they also stand, and which also saves them. By adding some unnamed work to this sentence you are actually doing violence to the text and bending it out context. The context here is Paul is addressing that their faith is based upon the fact that we actually do believe that Christ was resurrected. This also violates the thesis statement of Romans in vs. 1:16 that the gospel is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes.
 
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