1 Maccabees 2:55 ... Jesus?!

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I’ve been puzzling for weeks over why iPieta, which includes the DR and the Vulgate, reads “Jesus” in this verse.
Jesus, whilst he fulfilled the word, was made ruler in Israel.
Iesus dum implet verbum factus est dux Israhel
The NAB reads “Joshua.”
Joshua, for executing his commission, became a judge in Israel.
Understand that I was reading 1 Maccabees for the very first time, from the DR in iPieta. I was a little shocked! Is Jesus that close to Joshua in translation? What’s behind this?
 
Some say Christ’s name in Hebrew is actually the English Joshua, but the Latin renders it Iesus from the Greek Iēsoûs. So maybe that’s why it reads Jesus and not Joshua.
 
Understand that I was reading 1 Maccabees for the very first time, from the DR in iPieta. I was a little shocked! Is Jesus that close to Joshua in translation? What’s behind this?
Well, the short answer is: it’s because the names ‘Jesus’ and ‘Joshua’ have the same origin.

Yeshua was a common name among Jews of the Second Temple Period, and is thought by some to be the Hebrew or Aramaic name for Jesus. It was common that extant literature we have (say, the Bible itself, as well as other works such as Josephus and the Dead Sea Scrolls) mentions several individuals with this name. In fact, instances of the name were found 71 times in burial caves from that time period.

The name Yeshua (transliterated in the English Old Testament as Jeshua) is a late form of Yehoshua (‘Joshua’), spelled with a letter vav in the second syllable. Late Biblical Hebrew spellings for earlier names often contracted the theophoric element Yeho- to Yo-: for example, Yehochanan is often contracted to Yochanan (which BTW is the origin of the name ‘John’, through the Greek transliteration Iōannes). However, there is no name (aside from Yehoshua) in which Yeho- became Ye-.

In the Septuagint and other Greek-language Jewish texts, such as the writings of Josephus and Philo of Alexandria, Ἰησοῦς (Iēsous) is the standard form used to translate both Yehoshua and Yeshua. It is also used to represent the name of ‘Joshua’ son of Nun in Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8 (It was also used in the Septuagint to translate the name Hoshea in one of the three verses where this referred to Joshua the son of Nun: Deut. 32:44).

Here’s a (not comprehensive) list of the references to the names Yehoshua/Yeshua (or to people whose original names are thought to come from this) in the Bible:

1.) Joshua son of Nun
2.) Joshua of Beth-Shemesh, owner of the field in which the Ark rested after its return from the land of the Philistines (1 Samuel 6:14,18)
3.) Jeshua the head of the 9th course of priests, and possibly of “the house of Jeshua” (1 Chronicles 24:11; Ezra 2:36; Nehemiah 7:39)
4.) Jeshua, a Levite of Hezekiah’s time (2 Chronicles 31:15)
5.) Jeshua son of Jozadak = Joshua the high priest (Ezra 2:2; 3:2,8; 4:3; 5:2; 10:18; Nehemiah 7:7; 12:1,7,10,26; Sirach 49:12)
6.) Jeshua of Pahath-moab, some of whose descendants returned from Babylon to Jerusalem with Zerubbabel (Ezr 2:6; Nehemiah 7:11) = “Jesus” (1 Esdras 58)
7.) Jeshua, head of a Levitical house which had oversight of the workmen in the temple (Ezra 2:40; 3:9; Nehemiah 7:43). He is mentioned again in Nehemiah 8:7 as taking part in explaining the Torah to the people, in Neh 9:4 f (compare 12:8) as leading in the worship, and in 10:9 (10) as sealing the covenant; this Jeshua is called son of Azaniah (Nehemiah 10:9)
8.) Jeshua father of Ezer, a repairer of the wall (Nehemiah 3:19)
9.) Jesus (Iēsous) son of Sirach
10.) Jesus (Iēsous) of Nazareth
11.) [Jesus] (Iēsous) Barabbas (Matthew 27:15-18)
 
=milkbar;6691990]I’ve been puzzling for weeks over why iPieta, which includes the DR and the Vulgate, reads “Jesus” in this verse.
The NAB reads “Joshua.”
Understand that I was reading 1 Maccabees for the very first time, from the DR in iPieta. I was a little shocked! Is Jesus that close to Joshua in translation? What’s behind this?
The RSV also reads: 1Mac.2: [55] “Joshua, because he fulfilled the command, became a judge in Israel.”

I copied both the DR and the Vulgate and the RSV on two verses:

**Luke 1:31 **[RSV] Luke.1: 31 "And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus".

[DR]1 Mac. 2 55 Jesus, whilst he fulfilled the word, was made ruler in Israel.

[Vulgate] Iesus dum implet verbum factus est dux Israhel

[DR] Luke 1: 31 Behold thou shalt conceive in thy womb and shalt bring forth a son: and thou shalt call his name Jesus.

[Vulgate] ecce concipies in utero et paries filium et vocabis nomen eius Iesum

NOTICE that in the Vulgate a different word [spelling] is used.

In 1 Mac. 2:55 “Iesus” and in Luke 1:31 “Iesum”; the last letter is changed leading me to think Joshua is the correct term. Certainly, the reference in 1 Mac. 55 is NOT to Jesus Christ; the Second person of the Trinity.
 
NOTICE that in the Vulgate a different word [spelling] is used.

In 1 Mac. 2:55 “Iesus” and in Luke 1:31 “Iesum”; the last letter is changed leading me to think Joshua is the correct term. Certainly, the reference in 1 Mac. 55 is NOT to Jesus Christ; the Second person of the Trinity.
Well, Iesum (or Jesum) is simply the accusative form of the name in Latin. Iesu (Jesu) is the genitive, dative, ablative, and vocative, while the nominative is Iesus (Jesus).
 
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