Then what of Chag HaMatzot, Shavuot, Yom Teurah, Yom Kippur, Sukkot, HaShanna Rabbah, Shabbat? All of these are Jewish holidays [Holy Days], which were celebrated by Christ throughout his ministry, and by the Apostles even at the start of - and thoughout - their minstry to the gentiles (as I’ve indicated in Acts).
What of them? They were all Jews. Pious Jews, who had no reason to stop being “Jewish”.
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The Catholic Church does not celebrate these holidays like the Apostles did (post Christ's ascension). Some that ARE celebrated were changed while others are ignored altogether.
None of the Jewish feasts have been “ignored” by the Catholic Church. The Gentile Catholics never learned to celebrate the Jewish feasts. Most of the feasts could no longer be celebrated by the Jews when the temple was destroyed in 70 AD.
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[Point of concession: Most Protestants don't celebrate these Jewish holidays either, which is wrong...
And you think it is wrong because?
but we were discussing the timeframe of Paul’s 1st letter to Timothy. My point is to show he still celebrated these Jewish holidays.]
I think you are trying to argue something that we all agree upon.
What does this have to do with the thread topic? Are you trying to say that, since modern Catholics do not celebrate the Jewish feasts, that the Catholic Church is not the church of the NT?
Paul was a Christian, a fulfilled Jew…but he was not a Catholic. Maybe I should better qualify what I mean. When I say “Catholic” I mean “Christianity after the Holy Roman Empire’s integration and funding and marriage to Christianity” during which they changed Sabbath and removed or changed the celebratory date of the Jewish feasts (High Sabbaths).
The mistake you are making here is in your definition of the Catholic Church. It is not Roman, and it did not begin when the Church took over the administration of the Western Empire. It began when Jesus breathed upon the Apostles. From that point, the Church was Catholic.
The Sabbath is a command of God, and cannot be “changed”.
The dates of Christian celebration are within the authority of the Church to set and change.
When I use the word “fulfilled” I DO NOT mean “complete, hence no longer necessary to be or do”.
This may be what is causing the shortcomings in your theology. When Jesus said “it is fulfilled”, He meant that it was no longer necessary to offer any lambs as a sacrifice for sin. He, as the Lamb of God, offered Himself once for all time.
When I use the word “fulfilled” I DO mean “everything one used to do without understanding, plus the Understanding given of Christ”…
The Jews understood their feasts perfectly. It is an error to assume that they did not.
so Paul was a Jew “fulfilled” = Judaism religion “plus Gospel of Christ”. Paul was not a Catholic = “Gospel of Christ minus Jewish holy feasts and celebrations and commandments”.
You are suffering from an erroneous definition of Catholicism.
Thanks for your clarification (and yours too, Dokimas). This was why I said “
belief places Christ’s birth at 1 AD” because that’s the common consensus.
Actually, it is not. That is an uncommon perception. Anyone who has studied the history of NT times knows better.
… while proving my initial point…that the span between years 27AD to 33AD [Christ’s death, resurrection and ascension] still places the apostles commencement to the gentiles in the first century, which is why I didn’t mind using the date most people ‘believed’ in.
What does that mean "commencement to the gentiles?
Has there ever been any doubt that the Gospel was transmitted by Jewish Apostles to the Gentiles in the first century? This is how the Catholic Church spread all over the civilized world!
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