1 Timothy 5:11,12

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One…
Thanks for your thoughtful reply.

But were Targums not more recent than Paul?

Also was it not a fundamental idea of Paul that his followers were free of the law?
Targums are dated anywhere from the 2nd Temple Period to the middle ages, depending on the Targum. Some are more useful for determining the flow of early Judaic thought then others, depending on the date, however even later Targums are often collections of much earlier material.
 
=spencer2;7368831]Here st Paul says not to allow young widows into the convent for fear of breaking their pledge with God and thus bringing condemnation to them. Does this mean that if a nun or priest decides he/she wants to marry instead that they are condemned?
1 Tim. 5: 1-12 “But refuse to enrol younger widows; for when they grow wanton against Christ they desire to marry, and so they incur condemnation for having violated their first pledge”

One needs to read this in the context of h entire message dealing with Christian Charity and widows.

A Vow of Chasity is taken freely, knowingly and wilingly. It has the SIGNIFIANCE of a personal Covenant betweea that person and Almighty God. THATS A VERY SERIOUS MATTER.

The CC does have a very long and complicated dispensation from vows process that one can attempt to employ. If granted, then one is free to marry in the Church. I know of suh a case.
 
One…
It is not ok to kill.

But consider what Paul said:
yet we know that a person is justified not by the works of the law but through faith in Jesus Christ. And we have come to believe in Christ Jesus, so that we might be justified by faith in Christ, and not by doing the works of the law, because no one will be justified by the works of the law.
The Holy Bible : New Revised Standard Version (Nashville: Thomas Nelson Publishers, 1989), Ga 2:16.
This discussion of law really is off-topic and not appropriate to discuss here now.
 
This may be an oversimplification, since many of our customs as Christians (including head coverings, which Paul endorses, or fulfillments of Jewish feasts such as the Tamid, Passover, etc) have their roots in Judaism. There is no reason to assume that disciplines such as celibacy vows ceased with the advent of Christ. For an example of this, Levitical priests offering sacrifice for their month had to remain celibate. This same concept is found in our priests today, who are perpetually celibate due to their daily offering of sacrifice. The original basis for such disciplines has not changed, and so are not disposed of. Your interpretation of a seemingly rather clear statement by Paul seems to rest on the assumption that Paul could not have meant that because no such vows existed. Perhaps you could provide a reference for your statement?
Some of this depends on how one defines terms. Celibate means unmarried. Continent means abstaining from sexual relations. Levitical priests were of course not required to be unmarried, but did have to abstain from sexual relations at certain times.

No such restrictions are taught by Paul (or anyone) in the New Testament for Christians.

Similarly, the custom of head coverings is just that, a custom. Adopted by some people and/or cultures. Not required by Paul, or the Bible, or the Christian Church, always and everywhere.

Catholic priests today are NOT perpetually celibate. Eastern Catholics allow married priests, and even the Latin Rite has exceptions to allow married priests. Right?
 
Not completely true. At the time of Pauls writting the lines between being Christian and beign Jewish were often entertwined. Moat all of our chirstian pratices grew out of the jewish faith. So the practice of Targums and Rabbinic teaching relivent to the subject.
Yes, of course at the time the distinction between Christians and Jews was unclear.

My point is that Paul was writing to Christians. Those who followed Christ (as Paul did, even with his highly Jewish upbringing).

Paul was writing to Christians…those who followed Christ as Paul understood Christ. Do you disagree?
 
No, I am not, I apologize if I was unclear. Headcoverings are a custom, and Paul seems to allude to the fact that it is not a custom necessarily used by all the Churches. However, Paul’s personal endorsement of them is not based on cultural grounds, but rather he makes his appeal to the order of creation. This is why I think that it is a bit premature to brush Paul’s reference to headcoverings aside as referring to a specific context.

I am not attempting to state that Paul is mandating headcoverings for the Church, rather I am stating that Paul is using his personal approval and rationale behind headcoverings as an argument against the more general problem of liturgical abuse in the Corinthian church. His argument on his views about headcoverings are not cultural, because then his argument against the liturgical abuse wouldn’t have any force.
Thank you, Nathan.

So…trying to understand…the issue of head coverings is a limited and culturally conditioned prescription, or an eternal one?

Again, sorry if I misunderstand your point, just trying to clarify. Thanks.
 
That does not address the point, which is that many of our customs and disciplines arise out of Judaism. Also, Numbers 30 and the Targums speak of vows of widows, and there does seem to be reference by Paul to an “order of widows,” as some scholars have referred to it. Regardless of whether Eastern Rite Catholics practice our vow of celibacy for the priesthood, this does not negate the Jewish roots and theological rationale behind the normative perpetual celibacy of the Latin rite. It is worth noting that Eastern rite priests may become ordained if already married, but may not remarry or become married after being ordained or the death of a spouse. This is comparable to the possibility of the apostles having been married, and yet there is no evidence to suggest that they sought out marriage after their ordination. If this marital reality of the apostles nevertheless did not negate the Judaic roots of celibacy or continence when offering sacrifice, there is good reason to see the parallels today. Whether it is binding as dogma is not the issue. The issue is the root of the practice.
The Latin Rite (nor any other Rite) of the Catholic Church does not require perpetual celibacy for priests.

Obviously, the discipline of priests being unmarried was a later tradition (as St. Peter had a mother in law) and as has been noted, the Catholic Church has always had married priests.

Yes, of course, the Jewish influence and tradition on Christianity is essential. I don’t know anywhere Jewish law requires perpetual celibacy. Can you provide some info? Thanks!
 
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