M
Marilena
Guest
From the site: towerwatch.com/Witnessing/101_questions.htm
I liked this alot… the portion posted here is not the whole thing.
but it is a good read, and worth your time to read it. here is a portion of it:
These questions have been put together using information from many different sources. All verses are from the NWT so that the translation of these verses cannot be questioned by Jehovah’s Witnesses. If the Watchtower Society decides to change any of these verses (like they did with Heb 1:6), then the obvious question for the individual Jehovah’s Witness is why did the WTS change their own Bible.
“…keep testing whether you are in the faith” (2Cor 13:5)
I liked this alot… the portion posted here is not the whole thing.
but it is a good read, and worth your time to read it. here is a portion of it:
These questions have been put together using information from many different sources. All verses are from the NWT so that the translation of these verses cannot be questioned by Jehovah’s Witnesses. If the Watchtower Society decides to change any of these verses (like they did with Heb 1:6), then the obvious question for the individual Jehovah’s Witness is why did the WTS change their own Bible.
“…keep testing whether you are in the faith” (2Cor 13:5)
- The WTS claims it uses the Bible as it’s “supreme authority”. Where in the Bible does anyone count their time in preaching on a slip of paper and are assigned record cards of activity, determining this as a “gauge to their spirituality”? Where in the Bible are Pioneers, Auxiliary Pioneers, Bethelites, and Kingdom Halls? Where in the Bible does it say that anyone born after 1935 can not go to heaven, that Christians are required to attend five meetings a week, that men are prohibited from wearing beards, and that after a prophecy fails, if the prophet admits he made a mistake, he is no longer a false prophet (see Deut 18:20-22)? Where does the Bible say that a person must belong to an organization that will start in the late 19th century and be headquartered in Brooklyn, NY, in order to survive Armageddon?
- The WTS teaches that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob will not reside with Christ in his heavenly kingdom. If this is so, then how do you explain Mt 8:11 in which Jesus says, “But I tell you that many from eastern parts and western parts will come and recline at the table WITH Abraham and Isaac and Jacob IN the kingdom of the heavens"?
- If the Holy Spirit is God’s impersonal “active force”, why does he speak directly and refer to himself as “I” and “me” in Acts 13:2? If the Holy Spirit is God’s impersonal active force, how could he: Be referred to as “he” and “him” in Jn 16:7- 8 and Jn 16:13-14; Bear witness (Jn 15:26, Acts 20:23); Feel hurt (Isa 63:10); Be blasphemed against (Mk 3:29, Lk 12:10); Say things (Ezek 3:24, Acts 8:29, 10:19, and Heb 10:15-17); Forbid someone to say things (Acts 16:6); Plead for us with groanings (Rom 8:26); Be tested (Acts 5:9); Send people (Acts 13:4); Be a helper (Jn 14:16, 16:7); Appoint overseers (Acts 20:28); Be outraged (Heb 10:29); Desire (Gal 5:17); Search (1Cor 2:10); Comfort (Acts 9:31); Be grieved (Eph 4:30); Be loved (Rom 15:30); Be lied to and be God (Acts 5:3-4)? What does the Bible say about those who speak against the Holy Spirit? See Mt 12:32 and Lk 12:10.
- The NWT translates the Greek word “Theos” in Jn 1:1c as “a god”, but translates this same exact Greek word as “God” everywhere else it appears, (eg, Jn 3:2, 3:16, 3:17, 3:33, 3:34, 4:24, 6:27, 8:54, etc), including Jn 20:28 where this word explicitly refers to Jesus. What is the reason for this inconsistency in the translation of “Theos” in Jn 1:1c? If “Theos” was translated as “God” in Jn 1:1c like it is translated everywhere else it appears in the NWT, how would Jn 1:1 read and what would it say about the nature of Christ? Similarly, the Greek word “Theon” is translated in the NWT as “God” in almost every instance (eg, Mt 22:37, Lk 10:27, Jn 1:1b, 8:41, 14:1, 17:3, 1Jn 4:7, 4:12, 5:2, Rev 14:7, etc), but in Jn 10:33 it is translated as “a god”. What is the reason for this inconsistency in the translation of the word “Theon”? If “Theon” was translated as “God” in Jn 10:33, how would this verse read and what would it say about the nature of Christ? What did Jesus say in this passage that made the Jews want to kill him? See Jn 10:30-31. The phrase “Son of God” in theological language is a semitic term which means “having the same nature as God”, or being God, just as the term “Son of man” means “having the same nature as a man”, or being a man. Since blasphemy is one of the few offenses in Jewish law for which a person may be stoned to death, wouldn’t this claim of Christ, that he is the Son of God, qualify as a blasphemous statement to the Jews, and wasn’t this the reason they wanted to kill him by stoning him to death (Jn 10:31, 36-39)?