1john5:16

  • Thread starter Thread starter suupah
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
S

suupah

Guest
In my Catholic bibles 1john5:16 says that there is sin leading to death. In many protestant bibles it says that there is “a” sin that leads to death. That “a” would infer that there is a singular sin ie blaspheming the holy spirit that leads to deaht where as the Catholic translation would imply that there are mortal sins.

Are there any scripture scholars reading this who can tell who has the correct translation and whether the “a” was a deliberate insertion to protect their doctrine or whether it is a legitamate translation of that verse

thanks
 
I would not call myself a biblical scholar, but the Douhay Rheims translates it with an “a” as well.
He that knoweth his brother to sin a sin which is not to death, let him ask: and life shall be given to him who sinneth not to death. There is a sin unto death. For that I say not that any man ask. All iniquity is sin. And there is a sin unto death.
(1 John 5:16-17 DRB)
Click to expand...
 
I’m not Biblical scholar either, but most protestant translations also say in 1 John 5:17 that there is “a” sin not unto death too. Which has John saying “there’s a sin unto death and a sin not unto death” between the 2 verses.

See parallel verses here.
 
I don’t agree with your premise that the mere presence or absence of an article (‘a’) is the difference between one doctrine and another.

Also, Latin does not have articles, so the Douai is no help on this point.

But even if all manuscripts were unanimous in either having or lacking the article, I would not draw a doctrinal conclusion either way.
 
suupah said:
In my Catholic bibles 1john5:16 says that there is sin leading to death. In many protestant bibles it says that there is “a” sin that leads to death. That “a” would infer that there is a singular sin ie blaspheming the holy spirit that leads to deaht where as the Catholic translation would imply that there are mortal sins.

Are there any scripture scholars reading this who can tell who has the correct translation and whether the “a” was a deliberate insertion to protect their doctrine or whether it is a legitamate translation of that verse

thanks
Click to expand...
The Greek scholars can jump in here (I’m not one) but the Greek scripture says “eimi hamartia” which in English is “there is sin”. In other words no article before sin.
 
Ron_Conte said:
I don’t agree with your premise that the mere presence or absence of an article (‘a’) is the difference between one doctrine and another.

Also, Latin does not have articles, so the Douai is no help on this point.

But even if all manuscripts were unanimous in either having or lacking the article, I would not draw a doctrinal conclusion either way.
Click to expand...
Well the article makes it singular which corresponds with what Christ says about only blaspheming against the holy spirit is not forgivable.
 
thistle said:
The Greek scholars can jump in here (I’m not one) but the Greek scripture says “eimi hamartia” which in English is “there is sin”. In other words no article before sin.
Click to expand...
how would you say “there is a sin” in greek?
 
Hi,

If the only sin that leads to death is blasphemy against the Holy Spirit, then no one who refrains from that sin all his life would need redemption.

Not an easy position to attempt to defend!
 
the phrase “there is a sin” when referring to sin that leads to death(spiritual), is no different than if I were to say

“there is a shark” when referring to the fact a shark is deadly, but remember, there are not only many types of sharks that are dealy, but each type has many within it’s species.

therefore, there is deadlysin(many types) and there is non deadly sin(many types).

Jesus even lists several, that any man who commits them without repenting will not attain eternal life(fornicators, murderers, gossipers etc…)

Let’s not forget, 1 John 5:16 is not referring to ANYONE outside of Christ(non Christians), but is referring directly to Christians. All those outside of Christ are doomed anyway, so there is no way this is speaking to non christians. All of
the lists of sins
Jesus is speaking about in scripture
are directed toward
Christians also, for he would be wasting His breath to speak to non Christians since they have no redemption outside of Christ.
 
suupah said:
I did. I was wondering what it would look like with the “a” in it.😉
Click to expand...
In my post I said I am not a Greek scholar. I was simply giving you the Greek text from scripture and the English translation.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top