I
in_servitude
Guest
I had lunch today with a protestant friend of mine, and we got onto the topic of the 1st passover. I made the statement, “The lamb had to be eaten in order for the 1st born son to be saved from death.” I have heard this spoken by my priest, who I trust. Also, I remember this, I think, from a Scott Hahn CD. My friend took issue with this. Now I have gone back and read Exodus 12 - and I see where the Spirit passes over any house with blood on the door frame. This statement taken in isolation seems to indicate that it does not matter if the lamb was actually eaten in that house.
But, then again later in Ch. 12 - it gives very specific regulations about the passover - and that does in fact state that the lamb must be eaten for it to conform to the regulations.
I like the way that the “must eat the lamb” part of this mates nicely with John 6 where one must eat the flesh of Jesus to have life. I thought that this could be a way to help a protestant better understand the Eucharist.
My protestant friend claims that if someone ran around putting blood over doorways of the Egyptians - then they would not have been killed that night. From what I see in Exodus 12 - that does look to be true.
Any pointers to information that will clarify if the lamb had to be eaten would be appreciated. Thanks!
But, then again later in Ch. 12 - it gives very specific regulations about the passover - and that does in fact state that the lamb must be eaten for it to conform to the regulations.
I like the way that the “must eat the lamb” part of this mates nicely with John 6 where one must eat the flesh of Jesus to have life. I thought that this could be a way to help a protestant better understand the Eucharist.
My protestant friend claims that if someone ran around putting blood over doorways of the Egyptians - then they would not have been killed that night. From what I see in Exodus 12 - that does look to be true.
Any pointers to information that will clarify if the lamb had to be eaten would be appreciated. Thanks!