2 Peter 1:20

[JM3]

RSV

First of all you must understand this, that no prophecy of scripture is a matter of one’s own interpretation

ASV

knowing this first, that no prophecy of scripture is of private interpretation

Volgate

hoc primum intellegentes quod omnis prophetia scripturae propria interpretatione non fit

Greek Interlinear

touto {THIS} prwton {FIRST} ginwskonteV {KNOWING,} oti {THAT} pasa {ANY} profhteia {PROPHECY} grafhV {OF SCRIPTURE} idiaV {OF ITS OWN} epilusewV {INTERPRETATION} ou ginetai {IS NOT,}

Why is this verse used to say that scripture is not a matter of private interpretation, when the verse states that it is prophecy that is not a matter of private interpretation?

I’m just trying to understand the reasoning.

 

[supertubos]

Why is this verse used to say that scripture is not a matter of private interpretation, when the verse states that it is prophecy that is not a matter of private interpretation?

I’m just trying to understand the reasoning.

I am trying to find out your objections.
So, you think that Prophecies should not be of private interpretation and the rest could be of private interpretation?
Is it difficult for you that prophecy = scripture? Or scripture = prophecy?

My greek is very poor but I found this in Google search, no time to confirm its authenticity.

Prophecy (prophteia).
Late word from prophthv and prophmi, to speak forth. Common in papyri. This gift Paul will praise most (chapter 1 Corinthians 14:1ff.). Not always prediction, but a speaking forth of God’s message under the guidance of the Holy Spirit.

Sincerely I do not know whether this answers your question for I did not understand it properly, I even did not know that this passage was used (by whom?) to the finality you mentioned…

 

[JM3]

I am trying to find out your objections.
So, you think that Prophecies should not be of private interpretation and the rest could be of private interpretation?
Is it difficult for you that prophecy = scripture? Or scripture = prophecy?

Prophecy is one part of scripture, not the totality of it. I have seen this verse used against the interpretations of scripture by protestants, which I think would be a misuse of the verse. Insights into the scriptures come from one’s own interpretation of them, seen through the teaching of the Church as St Paul did in Galatians.

Galatians 1:15-18

But when he who had set me apart before I was born, and had called me through his grace, was pleased to reveal his Son to me, in order that I might preach him among the Gentiles, I did not confer with flesh and blood, nor did I go up to Jerusalem to those who were apostles before me, but I went away into Arabia; and again I returned to Damascus. Then after three years I went up to Jerusalem to visit Cephas, and remained with him fifteen days.

The question, therefore, is why do Catholics use this verse to say that no scripture is a matter of one’s own interpretation?

 

[MarcoPolo]

Prophecy is one part of scripture, not the totality of it.

I used to think just as you did. But I’ve since seen the verse in a different sense.

Your above quote is not necessarily true. Prophecy in the 21st century American sense is a future prediction. But in a Biblical sense it is a communication between man and God (which of course the whole of Scripture is). That’s what was taught on the term in one of my theology master’s classes.

So essentially, when the verse says no prophecy of Scripture is a matter of private interpretation, that means you can’t interpret any part of Scripture apart from the Church, which is the corporate interpretation. And verse 21 goes on to expound why this is so: “because no prophecy ever came by the impulse of man, but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God.” So once again, all of Scripture is men moved by the Holy Spirit. I think that reinforces that the whole Scripture is of God. And just as no part of Scripture was written by man alone, so neither is any part of Scripture interpreted by man alone, privately.

 

[JM3]

Prophecy in the 21st century American sense is a future prediction. But in a Biblical sense it is a communication between man and God (which of course the whole of Scripture is).

That makes sense. Thank you.

 

[rdscheirer]

Prophesy/Revalation ended with the death of the last Apostle- so said by my Lutheran Pastor and so said by my Catholic Pastor once I reverted to the Church.

 

[supertubos]

Prophecy is one part of scripture, not the totality of it. I have seen this verse used against the interpretations of scripture by protestants, which I think would be a misuse of the verse. Insights into the scriptures come from one’s own interpretation of them, seen through the teaching of the Church as St Paul did in Galatians.

The question, therefore, is why do Catholics use this verse to say that no scripture is a matter of one’s own interpretation?

I did my best.
I am Portuguese.
Never heard of it.
Cheers…

 

[JM3]

I did my best.
I am Portuguese.
Never heard of it.
Cheers…