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tritcher1988
Guest
[BIBLEDRB]John 10:34[/BIBLEDRB]
Hi, I would like to understand the meaning of this verse. What is being said here?
Hi, I would like to understand the meaning of this verse. What is being said here?
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grasscutter
Guest
Me too! Thanks for asking…
Hopefully, someone with knowledge will answer soon.
Hopefully, someone with knowledge will answer soon.
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Gods_Peace
Guest
I’m guessing Jesus means that since we are children of god we are partakers in his divine life. But that is just my own individual interpretation. God Bless.
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Garyjohn2
Guest
The original greek (as far as I can tell) for “gods” in this verse is “θεοί”/“theos.” It can mean godly, very exceeding, or a magistrate (figuratively). It could just be one of several translations possible I suppose. It doesn’t say “God” but “gods” perhaps meaning divine.
θεοι noun - nominative plural masculine
theos theh’-os: a deity; figuratively, a magistrate; by Hebraism, very – exceeding, God, god(-ly, -ward).
θεοι noun - nominative plural masculine
theos theh’-os: a deity; figuratively, a magistrate; by Hebraism, very – exceeding, God, god(-ly, -ward).
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ChrisCath
Guest
Just click the “Haydock Commentary” link in your post.
That explanation seems pretty good to me.
Jesus is referring to:
[BIBLEDRB]Psalm 81[/BIBLEDRB]
(Psalm 81, old enumeration; Psalm 82, modern numbering)
And for an explanation of the Psalm, click the Haydock Commentary link immediately above.
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tritcher1988
Guest
My apologies: I do not understand this commentary. 
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tritcher1988
Guest
I spoke with a priest about this verse, and we spent some time looking into this:
Maybe no one is interested in this, but here are some conclusions I have retained
from that session, please correct:
The so called “divine assembly” or “congregation of Gods” in psalm 81[82] is
in fact a gathering of the Jewish High Priests to whom God gives the title “gods”
whilst instructing them on how to administer judgement to the nations.
In John 10, the Jewish High Priests accuse Jesus of blasphemy (claiming
divinity). Jesus then says that God, through scripture, has given the title of
"gods"in the past to the High Priests. And that since his (Jesus’s) works
have proven to be greater than those of the High Priests themselves, he is
more than worthy of the title “Son of God.”
Jesus’s argument here is an example of a rabbinic rhetorical technique called a
fortiori, or argument from the stronger reason. A sort of “upping of the ante.”
Frankly, on this subject the Haydock Commentary seems choppy and difficult
to understand. :twocents:
Maybe no one is interested in this, but here are some conclusions I have retained
from that session, please correct:
The so called “divine assembly” or “congregation of Gods” in psalm 81[82] is
in fact a gathering of the Jewish High Priests to whom God gives the title “gods”
whilst instructing them on how to administer judgement to the nations.
In John 10, the Jewish High Priests accuse Jesus of blasphemy (claiming
divinity). Jesus then says that God, through scripture, has given the title of
"gods"in the past to the High Priests. And that since his (Jesus’s) works
have proven to be greater than those of the High Priests themselves, he is
more than worthy of the title “Son of God.”
Jesus’s argument here is an example of a rabbinic rhetorical technique called a
fortiori, or argument from the stronger reason. A sort of “upping of the ante.”
Frankly, on this subject the Haydock Commentary seems choppy and difficult
to understand. :twocents:
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