O
Ora_et_Labora_1
Guest
I have heard it said that one of the main differences between “Eastern” and “Western” theology is that in the “East” it is said that because we die, we sin; while in the “West” it is said that because we sin, we die.
Now is this a gross oversimplification? It seems to me to be the case. In light of this I have to ask: if our first parents could not die, then why did they sin? IIUC, they only became subject to death AFTER they sinned.
What am I missing here?
Now is this a gross oversimplification? It seems to me to be the case. In light of this I have to ask: if our first parents could not die, then why did they sin? IIUC, they only became subject to death AFTER they sinned.
What am I missing here?