T
Telstar
Guest
I’ll even add the Douay-Rheims from 1-6, because the first sentence has a bearing on the entire meaning of the whole passage.
*Romans 7:[1] Know you not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) that the law hath dominion over a man, as long as it liveth? [2] For the woman that hath an husband, whilst her husband liveth is bound to the law. But if her husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. [3] Therefore, whilst her husband liveth, she shall be called an adulteress, if she be with another man: but if her husband be dead, she is delivered from the law of her husband; so that she is not an adulteress, if she be with another man. [4] Therefore, my brethren, you also are become dead to the law, by the body of Christ; that you may belong to another, who is risen again from the dead, that we may bring forth fruit to God. [5] For when we were in the flesh, the passions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members, to bring forth fruit unto death. [6] But now we are loosed from the law of death, wherein we were detained; so that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.*If Jesus had really taught the Apostles that marriage is eternal (according to LDS belief), then why wouldn’t the Apostles teach that a woman would be an adulteress if she gets married to any other man, even when her husband dies? Why didn’t Jesus say that in Matthew and Luke’s Gospels, too? Why don’t LDS also teach that, if they really think any marriage is ‘eternal’? Wouldn’t the wife still be subject to the law of her ‘eternal’ husband if the marriage never ends? Wouldn’t she be cheating on him by marrying someone else? These are the kinds of things that cause it not to make any sense whatsoever, in my mind.
*Romans 7:[1] Know you not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) that the law hath dominion over a man, as long as it liveth? [2] For the woman that hath an husband, whilst her husband liveth is bound to the law. But if her husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. [3] Therefore, whilst her husband liveth, she shall be called an adulteress, if she be with another man: but if her husband be dead, she is delivered from the law of her husband; so that she is not an adulteress, if she be with another man. [4] Therefore, my brethren, you also are become dead to the law, by the body of Christ; that you may belong to another, who is risen again from the dead, that we may bring forth fruit to God. [5] For when we were in the flesh, the passions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members, to bring forth fruit unto death. [6] But now we are loosed from the law of death, wherein we were detained; so that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.*If Jesus had really taught the Apostles that marriage is eternal (according to LDS belief), then why wouldn’t the Apostles teach that a woman would be an adulteress if she gets married to any other man, even when her husband dies? Why didn’t Jesus say that in Matthew and Luke’s Gospels, too? Why don’t LDS also teach that, if they really think any marriage is ‘eternal’? Wouldn’t the wife still be subject to the law of her ‘eternal’ husband if the marriage never ends? Wouldn’t she be cheating on him by marrying someone else? These are the kinds of things that cause it not to make any sense whatsoever, in my mind.