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protestantman
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Nope, I do not.That’s a little hard to accept. You don’t believe that Christ is really and truly present in the Eucharist?
Nope, I do not.That’s a little hard to accept. You don’t believe that Christ is really and truly present in the Eucharist?
What part of “full of grace” = “without sin” is so disturbing?I am not attempting to backlash. I just dont understand what is about Mary that you hold here in such a lofty position. The Apostles never adressed Mary in this way. The NT doesnt reference that she was without sin. All I have read, is that she was called blessed and that she was full of Grace. But these things could be attributed to many others as well. (David, Daniel,etc.)
WHAT??![]()
NO, it’s a prophecy about Mary giving birth to Jesus. It means that a second Eve (Mary) will give birth to a second Adam (Jesus) in order to reverse the sin that took place in the Garden of Eden.
I do believe that there is a possible two-fold meaning here. But like many other prophetical statements in the bible, it is difficult to say. This would be a topic for another thread, as it could be a leangthy one. Look at Isiaiah 9 for an example. There is a great deal of contraversy about this Prophesy. But again, that would be a topic for a new thread.It has nothing to do with snakes.![]()
What is grace? It is a gift of God. It is non specific.What part of “full of grace” = “without sin” is so disturbing?
And her righteousness is a free gift of God.If Mary was without sin, then she would have been righteous. Myt problem with this is that it goes against what the scriptures teach about righteousness.
The reformation was not in any way against what Christ had originally founded. That is a ridiculous argument! The reformation was against the apostasy that had corrupted what Christ had founded.The Catholic Church is what Christ founded. The rest of them came along many centuries later, in rebellion against what Christ had originally founded (and also against each other, but that is not relevant at the moment).
Here is what the term “full of grace” or “highly favored” one means. This is taken from a greek lexicon of the NT.What part of “full of grace” = “without sin” is so disturbing?
In a nut shell being Full of Grace is an attribute of the person. It is different than being Filled with Grace. It goes back to the Greek and the Greek usage of the word/ expression. Again a translational issue. I don’t have my notes in front of me.Has noone else ever been full of Grace or called blessed?
What of David, Daniel, Moses, Abrahem, Noah, Elijah, Elisha, and many others.
Are you sure Catholcisim is the “apostasy”, since Protestantism came after Catholicism?The reformation was not in any way against what Christ had originally founded. That is a ridiculous argument! The reformation was against the apostasy that had corrupted what Christ had founded.
No, what is disturbing oh fallable man is that you can’t see that God made specific exceptions to how how some people are “saved”. Mary had a greater salvation than all other men since she was saved from committing sin by virtue of the merits of her son and redeemed in a more exalted fashion (after CCC 492). She has **more **reason to call God her Savior than we do, because He saved her in an even more glorious manner! No other person in the universe can claim they are the mother of Jesus.Here is what the term “full of grace” or “highly favored” one means. This is taken from a greek lexicon of the NT.
Full of grace
χαριτόω charitóō; contracted charitó̄, fut. charitó̄sō, from cháris (5485), grace. To grace, highly honor or greatly favor. In the NT spoken only of the divine favor, as to the virgin Mary in Luke 1:28, kecharitōménē, the perf. pass. part. sing. fem. The verb charitóō declares the virgin Mary to be highly favored, approved of God to conceive the Son of God through the Holy Spirit. The only other use of charitóō is in Eph. 1:6 where believers are said to be “accepted in the beloved,” i.e., objects of grace.
Notice in this definition that there is no mention of a person so favored is without sin. A person can be highly favored as believers are said in Ephesians 1:6 and not having to be without sin.
What is disturbing is when people add to this term “highly favored” one that it means also this person is without sin. To say this is to go beyond the meaning of the word and add something that is not in the meaning. Its dishonest to do this and misleads people.
Because you reject Apostolic Succession, this will probably not hold much sway with you. However, for Catholics, we interpret the following as the granting of the rights, graces and powers associated with becoming a Bishop (fullness of Holy Orders:From Protestastman: This laying on of hands was a healing of his sight. The laying on of hands was used for Healing, as well as other things. Here it is done to heal, not to assign apostleship.
Well, considering that we now know what laying on of hands means, do you want to revisit what may have occurred in Acts 9 with the laying on of hands on Paul by Ananias?From Protestantman: Yes it says he visited to do what though? TO GET ACQUAINTED. Nothing in there about Apostleship.
I believe it does because of the imposition of hands by Ananias.From Protestantman: So, because he went to Jerusalem, you can just assume that he was made an Apostle? Scripture does not say that.
To know the Peter which means to know what Peter knew in combination with Paul’s new found power.From Protestantman: But it does not say what he went there for, other than to get acquainted.
The above Scripture seems pretty clear to contradict what you say above.From Protestantman: The Apostles NEVER stated that the Apostolic gifts were passed on to their successors. Remember that the Apostles were unique, in the fact that they had been appointed directly by Christ, and had seen Christ. No other Bishops or Popes can make that same claim.
Is 100% of the time consistent enough for you? In a later post you appear to not see the parallel of excommunication and expelled.From Protestantman: In some of my own observations, I have not seen this done consistantly. I would address that as a problem, wouldn’t you?
Read Acts 6:1-10, 1 Timothy 4:13-14, 1 Timothy 5:22, and 2 Timothy 1:4-6 (in the other post that I had to split). It may not say “Apostle” but it sure makes it clear they have their powers.From Protestantman: When does it say in scripture, that the Apostolic gifts were to be handed to a successor? When does scripture say that Timothy was anything more than a Disciple? Other than the 13 origional Apostles, when does scripture call anyone else an Apostle? Does scripture say that Barnabus was an Apostle(SPECIFICALLY)? Or Titus, or anyone?
1 Timothy 5:22 makes it clear that one that is impure may gain the power by the imposition of hands. Or in 2 Timothy4-6 where Paul doesn’t speak with assurance of Timothy’s faith but he sure does about his power. These two sure give evidence they can be separate.From Protestantman: According to the scripture of a good tree and a bad tree, impeccable and infallible are infact INSEPERABLE?
Luke 1: 31 Behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall name him Jesus.Protestantman: And what scripture do you get that from? Cite chapter and verse for this, please.
Protestantman, you have certainly plowed a lot of ground today. And introduced to me two theological concepts that I have never heard before which is amazing considering being in an ecumenical Bible Study, educated at a Protestant college, an ecumenical book group, years here on CAF, and fairly well-read.From Protestantman: I think that when it says consecrated (set apart for a holy purpouse) it points to something as unique as the creation of Adam
This is all speculation on your part. If this was taught in Scripture you would have a case but there is nothing in Scripture that claims she had a “greater salvation than all other men since she was saved from committing sin by virtue of the merits of her son and redeemed in a more exalted fashion”. She even acknowledges that God is her Savior in Luke 1:47 which means she considered herself a sinner.CentralFLJames;3430125]No, what is disturbing oh fallable man is that you can’t see that God made specific exceptions to how how some people are “saved”. Mary had a greater salvation than all other men since she was saved from committing sin by virtue of the merits of her son and redeemed in a more exalted fashion (after CCC 492).
More speculations. The Scriptures never makes any kind of distinctions (“He saved her in an even more glorious manner!”) about her like this.She has **more **reason to call God her Savior than we do, because He saved her in an even more glorious manner! No other person in the universe can claim they are the mother of Jesus.
No to all.Do you deny that Mary was the mother of Jesus? Do you deny that Jesus was the Son of God? Do you deny that Jesus existed at all time with God the Father in His 2nd person? Do you deny the trinity?
Yes because that is exactly says He did. Evidently God can enter the world even through a sinful woman.Do you imagine that an omniscient God would create His Living Word of His 2nd person through an avenue of a sinful vessel?!![]()
Luke 1:47 is an indicator she saw herself as a sinner. Secondly, no one in the NT including Jesus Himself ever claims she was without sin.No Mary was sinless.
Why not? Did not Jesus Who was God in the flesh touch and hang out with sinners without Himself becoming contaminated by them?To assume otherwise is to disbelief that God could not make it so and to believe that God’s Nature could tolerate to be contained within a vessel of sin! BLASAPHEMY!![]()
Good point.Sinning does not make one human. On the contrary, it is when man is without sin that he is most fully what God intends him to be.
A son of God as in John 1:12–But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in His name,Do you think of yourself as a son of God or a son of KJVs scripture?![]()
James
You still do not understand that scripture does not teach - authorized teachers teach. Such teachers will point out to you clearly that scripture itself indicated that one must follow traditions and teachings. No where in scripture can be found a new commandment of God to “Read scripture so that it may teach you.” What the apostles command is that you obey their teaching. Why do you disobey the authority of the apostles and no do as they say? The things I cite come directly from authorized teaching of the One Apostolic Church. Nothing you say comes from any authority that is recognizable to any man nor to God. Your statement:* ‘She even acknowledges that God is her Savior in Luke 1:47 which means she considered herself a sinner’* is a non-sequitur. You equate salvation with the presumption of sin as a pre-existing condition for all beings. Mary has acknowledged only that God has saved her from the occasion of the same certain sin she would have been subject to had God let her fall into it. Thus Mary can be “without sin” while it also being true that Mary is “saved” from falling into the trap of sin. There is no contradiction. Do you deny that God has the power to prevent someone from sinning while also accepting that Jesus, as both God and man did not not sin. If so, you are inconsistent in your logic and parroting rote dogmatic belief. Unless you yourself propose to stand before God as Mary’s accuser in the role of Satan show us in scripture where God told us Mary sinned.CentralFLJames;3430125:
This is all speculation on your part. If this was taught in Scripture you would have a case but there is nothing in Scripture that claims she had a “greater salvation than all other men since she was saved from committing sin by virtue of the merits of her son and redeemed in a more exalted fashion”. She even acknowledges that God is her Savior in Luke 1:47 which means she considered herself a sinner.No, what is disturbing oh fallable man is that you can’t see that God made specific exceptions to how how some people are “saved”. Mary had a greater salvation than all other men since she was saved from committing sin by virtue of the merits of her son and redeemed in a more exalted fashion (after CCC 492).
You challenge the teaching authority of the One Apostolic Church without having authority to do so. You yourself speculate on the false doctrine of sola scriptura even when it is unbiblical and in spite of the fact no apostle ever taught it nor did any early church father do so. Where did you get this teaching since it seems to me somone has lorded a human tradition and authority over you that is not from The Church nor God.CentralFLJames;3430125:
More speculations. The Scriptures never makes any kind of distinctions (“He saved her in an even more glorious manner!”) about her like this.She has more reason to call God her Savior than we do, because He saved her in an even more glorious manner! No other person in the universe can claim they are the mother of Jesus.
This is not what God said He did. Show me where in scripture or in official teaching of The Church where God said He would bring forth His Son from a woman born in sin.CentralFLJames;3430125:
Yes because that is exactly says He did. Evidently God can enter the world even through a sinful woman.Do you imagine that an omniscient God would create His Living Word of His 2nd person through an avenue of a sinful vessel?!
Wrong - see the above. Salvation applies equally to rescue from sin as it does to prevention of sin. You are just being selective in the protestant tradition of identifying heavily with your sinful nature. Could this selectivity arise from the human conscience not being able to accept the blatant error of OSAS where one can sin and remain saved? God told us He would write His laws on our hearts. It should come as no surprise that the false doctrines of men like Luther who compel the sinner to “sin boldly” should exist without creating disordered thinking and selective reasoning.CentralFLJames;3430125:
Luke 1:47 is an indicator she saw herself as a sinner. Secondly, no one in the NT including Jesus Himself ever claims she was without sin.No Mary was sinless.
Yet, we know from scripture that nothing impure can enter heaven and we know that Jesus ascended to the Father. Sin could find no mark in Jesus’ soul by reason of His Divinity. You are reading this phrase too literally. How can Jesus be The Living Word of God, a God who can do no evil, and become both Living Word and Sin? Your interpretation creates a new Divine Person of Sin and raises it to Equality with God. Clearly, your private interpretation is infantile (less than 500 years old) and theologically illogical and contradictory to other scripture. You need to start listening to true teaching and get out of the trap of fundamentalism.CentralFLJames;3430125:
Why not? Did not Jesus Who was God in the flesh touch and hang out with sinners without Himself becoming contaminated by them?To assume otherwise is to disbelief that God could not make it so and to believe that God’s Nature could tolerate to be contained within a vessel of sin! BLASAPHEMY
Does not the Scriptures teach in I Corinthians 5:21 that Jesus so identified with our sin that He became our sin?
He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.
So you do not think yourself a son of God. Pity.CentralFLJames;3430125:
A son of God as in John 1:12–But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in His name,Do you think of yourself as a son of God or a son of KJVs scripture?
What is a "son of KJVs scripture?
This is how the Sacred Tradition teaches us to understand it, ja4. We believe that the only way one could be “approved by God” is to be without sin. The only way to be without sin is to be washed in the blood of the Lamb. That is why we believe that Mary was saved by Christ in advance, so that she could be a fitting vessel for HIs incarnation.Here is what the term “full of grace” or “highly favored” one means. This is taken from a greek lexicon of the NT.
Full of grace
χαριτόω charitóō; contracted charitó̄, fut. charitó̄sō, from cháris (5485), grace. To grace, highly honor or greatly favor. In the NT spoken only of the divine favor, as to the virgin Mary in Luke 1:28, kecharitōménē, the perf. pass. part. sing. fem. The verb charitóō declares the virgin Mary to be highly favored, approved of God to conceive the Son of God through the Holy Spirit. The only other use of charitóō is in Eph. 1:6 where believers are said to be “accepted in the beloved,” i.e., objects of grace.
Notice in this definition that there is no mention of a person so favored is without sin. A person can be highly favored as believers are said in Ephesians 1:6 and not having to be without sin.
It is not “adding”, ja4. It is understanding what was meant by the writer. This is what Sacred Tradition does for us. We believe that the writers knew what they meant by the words that they used. This meaning is what was passed down to us.What is disturbing is when people add to this term “highly favored” one that it means also this person is without sin. To say this is to go beyond the meaning of the word and add something that is not in the meaning. Its dishonest to do this and misleads people.
No. It means she considers herself the recipient of salvation by grace.She even acknowledges that God is her Savior in Luke 1:47 which means she considered herself a sinner.
He could, if He wanted to. But, He chose instead to take His flesh from Mary, and to do that, He had to sanctify it first. You will understand this doctrine better when you study gnosticism, and the heresies that arose in the early centuries about the nature of Christ.Yes because that is exactly says He did. Evidently God can enter the world even through a sinful woman.
Indeed! And he could do this because He was the Lamb without Blemish. He took all the blemish out of Mary, so that He could take His flesh from her flesh without the contamination of original sin. He could have appeared out of the sky as a full grown man, sure. He chose to do it this way.Does not the Scriptures teach in I Corinthians 5:21 that Jesus so indentified with our sin that He became our sin?
He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.
Depends upon the level of acceptance. THose who reject that Jesus is the Son of God…I can’t be sure about that. All those who are properly baptized are considered part of the Body. Those baptized persons who have not accepted all of the Teachings are in various levels of improper joining to the Church. But there is only One Body,and One Church, and therefore, all who are in Christ are members of it. Does it gall you so much to be joined to “Catholics” in this manner?Are the ones who don’t accept all the teachings of the Church considered Catholics and part of the body of Christ?
Enoch, I believe, was also assumed into heaven and did not die. But I don’t think he had a chariot of fire. I think he was the son of Cain, I need to go and check…Elijah was taken up to heaven by a chariot of Fire, and yet Mary was not. In fact I think that Elijah is the only one spoken of in scriptures to leave the Earth in that manner, other than Christ.
I agree with you on this point.This laying on of hands was a healing of his sight. The laying on of hands was used for Healing, as well as other things. Here it is done to heal, not to assign apostleship.
No, but I do think it was very important to Paul that he do this. Why did Jesus command this to him? He states that he basically submitted His gospel to the Apostles. He wanted to be in unity with them, and no matter where he went all over the Church, he kept hearing that Peter had the keys. It had to make him curious about what kind of man Peter was, and why Jesus chose Him to shepherd and feed the sheep.Yes it says he visited to do what though? TO GET ACQUAINTED. Nothing in there about Apostleship.
I agree. I think it is pretty clear that Paul was made an Apostle by Christ, just like all the other Apostles. Jesus taught him by direct revelation in addition to being taught by other disciples, and the Apostles.So, because he went to Jerusalem, you can just assume that he was made an Apostle? Scripture does not say that.
It says he “went by revelation”, so it seems that Jesus sent him purposefully.But it does not say what he went there for, other than to get acquainted.
I agree with you on this point also. I think that they did not accept him as an Apostle until he “laid out before them” his gospel. At that point, I think they had to accept that he was called by God for a specific Apostolate.Yes, as a disciple, not an Apostle. Again read the colored text.
On the contrary, Paul says this explicitly! It is also clear when we read the immediate post-Apostolic Fathers that they understood their ordination and mission in this manner.The Apostles NEVER stated that the Apostolic gifts were passed on to their successors.
We have no more Apostles, but Christ gave His power to appoint to the Apostles, who passed it on to their successors. When the Church ordains, it is Christ who is at work. “He who hears you, hears Me” and “what you bind on earth is bound in heaven”.Remember that the Apostles were unique, in the fact that they had been appointed directly by Christ, and had seen Christ. No other Bishops or Popes can make that same claim.