I agree that contraception using NFP is approved by the catholic Church but why codoms used between married couples are considered not accepted…Why condoms are not accepted by the Catholic Church and the idea of birth control by NFP is accepted. So the idea of birth control by the Catholic Church is accepted.
Hi Peter57, I’m not sure I understand your question exactly. It appears to me you are asking why NFP is okay while artificial birth control is not. There are many readings you cna go to for the answer. Here is a clip from Pope Pius XII “Allocution to Midwives” that I have found to be helpful due to its simple explanation. It is rather long, though. I had tried to narrow it down to as little as possible and still get the message across and I will paste the link to the full article below:
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every attempt of either husband or wife in the performance of the conjugal act or in the development of its natural consequences which aims at depriving it of its inherent force and hinders the procreation of new life is immoral; and that no “indication” or need can convert an act which is intrinsically immoral into a moral and lawful one.
Today, besides, another grave problem has arisen, namely, if and how far the obligation of being ready for the service of maternity is reconcilable with the ever more general recourse to the periods of natural sterility the so-called “agenesic” periods in woman, which seems a clear expression of a will contrary to that precept…
…It is necessary first of all to consider two hypotheses.
If the application of that theory [NFP] implies that husband and wife may use their matrimonial right even during the days of natural sterility no objection can be made…
If, instead, husband and wife go further, that is, limiting the conjugal act exclusively to those periods, then their conduct must be examined more closely.
Here again we are faced with two hypotheses. If, one of the parties contracted marriage with the intention of **limiting the matrimonial right itself **to the periods of sterility, and not only its use, in such a manner that during the other days
the other party would not even have the right to ask for the debt, than this would imply an essential defect in the marriage consent…
…
However if the limitation of the act to the periods of natural sterility does not refer to the right itself but only to the use of the right, the validity of the marriage does not come up for discussion. Nonetheless, the moral lawfulness of such conduct of husband and wife should be affirmed or denied according as their intention to observe constantly those periods is or is not based on sufficiently morally sure motives…
…Serious motives, such as those which not rarely arise from medical, eugenic, economic and social so-called “indications,” may exempt husband and wife from the obligatory, positive debt for a long period or even for the entire period of matrimonial life.
From this it follows that the observance of the natural sterile periods may be lawful, from the moral viewpoint: and it is lawful in the conditions mentioned…
(Allocution to Midwives, Pope Pius XII) emphasis and [NFP] added by me
ewtn.com/library/PAPALDOC/P511029.HTM