A contradiction in accepting the Deuterocanonical Books?

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This is a complicated question. Try to bear with me. I noticed somewhat of a paradox reading Saint Jeromes introduction to the Latin Vulgate in the 4th century. In a sense I wonder why Catholics accept them because of his language, but also why if we do accept them why are three texts missing? Here’s the verse quote:

Of the Names and Number of the Canonical BOOKS.

Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy,
Joshua, Judges, Ruth, The 1st Book of Samuel, The 2nd Book of Samuel,
The 1st Book of Kings, The 2nd Book of Kings,
The 1st Book of Chronicles, The 2nd Book of Chronicles,
The 1st Book of Esdras, The 2nd Book of Esdras, The Book of Esther,The Book of Job,
The Psalms, The Proverbs, Ecclesiastes or Preacher, Cantica, or Songs of Solomon,
4 Prophets the greater,
12 Prophets the less

And the other Books the Church doth read for example of life and instruction of manners; but yet doth it not apply them to establish any Doctrine: such are these following,

The 3rd Book of Esdras, The 4th Book of Esdras, The Book of Tobias, The Book of Judith, The rest of the Book of Esther, The Book of Wisdom, Jesus the son of Syrach, Baruch the Prophet, The Song of the 3 Children, The Story of Susanna, Of Bel and the Dragon, The Prayer of Manasses, The 1st Book of Maccabees, The 2nd Book of Maccabees.

All the Books of the New Testament, as they are commonly received, we do receive and account them Canonical.


So my question is, if even Saint Jerome said they weren’t meant to be scripture but just for reading, why are they scripture?
And if they are why do our Bibles lack 3 and 4 Esdras ( more commonly known today as 1 and 2 Esdras as Ezra and Nehemiah are 1 and 2 in the traditional Latin Vulgate) and the Prayer of Manesseh when Jerome included these in the same list?
 
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So my question is, if even Saint Jerome said they weren’t meant to be scripture but just for reading, why are they scripture?

And if they are why do our Bibles lack 3 and 4 Esdras ( more commonly known today as 1 and 2 Esdras as Ezra and Nehemiah are 1 and 2 in the traditional Latin Vulgate) and the Prayer of Manesseh when Jerome included these in the same list?
Because Jerome, as great a saint as he is, does not constitute the magisterium all by himself. He was given a task which he preformed under obedience and gave his opinion. After that he showed us how to submit to the final authority of the church.

Peace!!!
 
There is a bigger thing here than our own opinions.

It took a long time for the Church in certain parts of the East to be interested in the Book of Revelation. They didn’t use it as a reading in their Masses until everybody else in the Church had agreed that it really was Scripture.

But they did start using Revelation, once the Holy Spirit had spoken through the Councils. And sure enough, they started to find that there were plenty of good things in it.

And that’s why St. Jerome had his own opinions and talked about them, but also obeyed his bishop and the Pope.
 
Seems to have been an East/West thing. Local Eastern church councils at the time were drawing up lists that included the proto-canonical books and the deuterocanonical book of Baruch, while Western church councils were drawing up lists that included the proto-canonical books and Baruch but also the other deuterocanonical books.

Though St Jerome came from the West, he spend the last 40 years of his life in the East and that (the Eastern Church) seems to have been was the Church he was writing about.

A Protestant Christian has put together a lot of info about ancient canon lists, here, that seems to show this East/West division.
 
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I am not questioning the Magisterium at all. I just was wondering if anyone knew historically how the Church chose some of the texts but decided against others. Prayer of Manesseh is actually a beautiful penitential prayer. I say it before confession quite often. I don’t see why that would be considered uninspired yet the Song of the Three Children was.
 
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