M
mdgspencer
Guest
I thought I would look up this question in the “New Catholic Encyclopedia”(1967 edition). The article “abortion” provides the following explanation:
“The medical distinctions pertinent to the moral aspects of the question include the distinction between induced abortion (an abortion that is brought about artificially and purposely, and sometimes called ‘therapeutic’ if it is done in the interests of maternal health) and spontaneous abortion, or one occurring naturally and not of set purpose. In moral terminology the former is called direct abortion and the latter is known as indirect abortion.”
“Fetal loss that is in no sense the purpose or intent of the physician, bur occurs as a side effect of some very seriously indicated therapy or surgery demanded without delay for the sake of the mother, is indirect and can be justified under the principal of double effect.”
I feel very strongly about the evil of abortion, but all the same it is better to have the truth of the matter, that, in this case, it is not sinful, and better to know particularly since some of those here have and may well will face this moral question. I expect that I can find the same explanation in numerous orthodox Catholic sources.
I won’t try to explain the principle of double effect since this post is long enough, and in any case the important matter is to know that “indirect abortion” can be justified in these circumstances.
“The medical distinctions pertinent to the moral aspects of the question include the distinction between induced abortion (an abortion that is brought about artificially and purposely, and sometimes called ‘therapeutic’ if it is done in the interests of maternal health) and spontaneous abortion, or one occurring naturally and not of set purpose. In moral terminology the former is called direct abortion and the latter is known as indirect abortion.”
“Fetal loss that is in no sense the purpose or intent of the physician, bur occurs as a side effect of some very seriously indicated therapy or surgery demanded without delay for the sake of the mother, is indirect and can be justified under the principal of double effect.”
I feel very strongly about the evil of abortion, but all the same it is better to have the truth of the matter, that, in this case, it is not sinful, and better to know particularly since some of those here have and may well will face this moral question. I expect that I can find the same explanation in numerous orthodox Catholic sources.
I won’t try to explain the principle of double effect since this post is long enough, and in any case the important matter is to know that “indirect abortion” can be justified in these circumstances.